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AIMA Exam 2022

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Subject Code: GM14

Subject Name: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT & ETHICS

Component name: TERM END  Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022

Question 1:- Strategy is developed by the visionary chief executive in_____mode of strategic management.       

a)   planning mode                       

b)   adaptive mode                       

c)   strategic mode                        

d)   entrepreneurial mode                       

 

Question 2:- Stability strategy is a ____strategy.       

a)   corporate level                       

b)   business level                       

c)   functional level                       

d)   strategic level                       

 

Question 3:- What are the means by which long term objectives will be achieved.   

a)   strategies                       

b)   policies                       

c)   strength                       

d)   opportunities                       

 

Question 4:- Marketing strategy is a ____type of strategy.  

a)   business level                       

b)   growth level                       

c)   corporate level                        

d)   functional level                       

 

Question 5:- When an industry relies heavily on government contracts, which forecasts can be the most important part of an external audit.             

a)   economic                       

b)   competitive                       

c)   political                       

d)   multinational                       

 

Question 6:- A possible and desirable future state of an organisation is called:

a)   mission                       

b)   vision                        

c)   strategy implementation                       

d)   strategy formulation                       

 

Question 7:- Selling of a company`s assets in parts for their tangible worth is called:            

a)   divestiture                       

b)   concentric diversification                       

c)   liquidation                       

d)   unrelated integration                       

 

Question 8:- What are the guides to decision making?          

a)   rules                       

b)   procedures                       

c)   goals                       

d)   policies                       

 

Question 9:- In strategic thinking, how long is the long-term, approximately?           

a)   1 month to 1 year                        

b)   2 to 3 years                       

c)   3 to 5 years                       

d)   more than 5 years                       

 

Question 10:- Buying another company by one company means:    

a)   joint venture                       

b)   acquisition                       

c)   amalgamation                       

d)   merger                       

 

Question 11:- Low cost, differentiation and focus are examples of:

a)   corporate strategies                       

b)   operational strategies                       

c)   business strategies                       

d)   functional strategies                       

 

Question 12:- Which environment can create new market and new business opportunities?

a)   political                        

b)   economic                       

c)   socio-cultural                       

d)   technological                       

 

Question 13:- The word tactics is most likely to be associated with:             

a)   business strategy                       

b)   corporate strategy                       

c)   operational strategy                       

d)   All of the above                       

 

Question 14:- How many cells in SWOT matrix?        

a)   9                        

b)   6                       

c)   3                       

d)   2                       

 

Question 15:- The reasons of diversification is :         

a)   to reduce competition                       

b)   to increase organisational capabilities                        

c)   to get tax advantage                       

d)   to get quick entry into business                       

 

Question 16:- In the ___developed by Michael Porter , competition is not defined narrowly as a firm`s closest competitors but rather more broadly to include other factors in an industry like buyers , suppliers , potential new entry of other firms , and the threat of substitutes.  

a)   PESTEL Framework                       

b)   VRIO Frame work                       

c)   five forces model                       

d)   value chain analysis                       

 

Question 17:- Which of the following is a primary feature of five forces model?             

a)   it is concerned exclusively about the intensity of rivalry among direct competitors.                       

b)   it takes into account a firm`s internal resources, capabilities, and core competencies.                       

c)   it helps managers determine the changing speed of an industry or the rate of innovation                       

d)   it views competition within an industry broadly to include forces such as buyers , suppliers, and the threat of substitutes.                        

 

Question 18:- What are the six elements of PESTLE?

a)   peace, elements, search , tape, legal                       

b)   power , environment, science, teaching, legal and education                       

c)   paper, element, savings, trust, labels, and entry                       

d)   political, economic, social , technological, legal and environmental                       

 

Question 19:- what kind of justice exists if employees are being open, honest, and truthful in their communication at work?          

a)   procedural                       

b)   distributive                       

c)   ethical                       

d)   interactional                       

 

Question 20:- Stakeholders are considered more important to an organisation when:     

a)   they can make use of their power on an organisation                       

b)   they do not emphasise the urgency of their issues                       

c)   their issues are not legitimate                       

d)   they can express themselves articulately                       

 

Case Study

This case examines the Wal-Mart`s persistently superior profitability, which reflects a competitive advantage that is based upon a number of strategies. Wal-Mart`s competitive advantage was based on a business model of targeting small towns as well as the urban and suburban locations. Wal-Mart grew quickly by pricing its products lower than those of local retailers, often putting them out of business. The company was also an innovator in information systems, logistics, and human resource practices. These strategies resulted in higher productivity and lower costs as compared to rivals, which enabled the company to earn a high profit while charging low prices. Wal-Mart led the way among U.S. retailers in developing and implementing sophisticated product tracking system using bar-code technology and checkout scanners. This information technology enabled Wal-Mart to track what was selling and adjust its inventory accordingly so that the products found in each store matched local demand, thereby avoiding overstocking. With regard to human resources, Sam Walton believed that employees should be respected and rewarded for helping to improve the profitability of the company. By the time the 1990s came along, Wal-Mart was already the largest seller of general merchandise in the U.S. But the rivals Target and Costco have continued to improve their performance, and Costco in particular is now snapping at Wal-Mart`s heals.  

Question 21:- Unique model developed by Wal-Mart was_________.             

a)   keep costs low                       

b)   developed bar code system                       

c)   targeted small towns                       

d)   All of the above                       

 

Question 22:- This business model was developed by__________. 

a)   Sam Walton                       

b)   Michael porter                       

c)   stakeholders                       

d)   employees                       

 

Question 23:- This model of Wal-Mart provides an example of:       

a)   Profitability                       

b)   effective strategy, leadership , vision                       

c)   market capability                       

d)   none of the above                       

 

Question 24:- Why did Sam Walton respected the employees?       

a)   effective leadership quality                       

b)   market capability of employees                       

c)   helped to improve profitability                       

d)   none of the above                       

 

Question 25:- By 1990s who was the largest seller of General Merchandise in U.S.   

a)   Target                       

b)   Cotsco                       

c)   The Kroger Co.                       

d)   Wal-Mart                       

 

Subject Code: GM13

Subject Name: ENTREPRENEURIAL MANAGEMENT

Component name: TERM END  Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022

Question 1:- Entrepreneurship can best be described as _________.       

a)   a process that requires setting up a business.                       

b)   taking a significant risk in a business context.                       

c)   having a strong vision.                       

d)   a process involving innovation, new products or services, and value creation.                       


Question 2:- A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?    

a)   Ecopreneur                       

b)   Technopreneur                       

c)   Intrapreneur                       

d)   Social Entrepreneur                       

 

Question 3:- Entrepreneurial development is the key to achieve all-round __________ through.   

a)   Economic development                       

b)   Increase in profits                       

c)   Shareholders value                       

d)   Business development                       

 

Question 4:- Banks are more likely to provide financing for a new product:             

a)   once the product is developed                       

b)   in the early stages of product development.                       

c)   while the entrepreneur is researching the demand for the product                       

d)   banks are likely to provide financing at any stage of product development                       

 

Question 5:- Which of the following are described as one of the Big Five personality traits?          

a)   tolerance of others.                       

b)   need for achievement.                       

c)   propensity to leadership.                       

d)   locus of control.                       

 

Question 6:- What are the primary reasons that start-ups need funding?

a)   Cash flow challenges, capital investments, and lengthy product development cycles                       

b)   Business research, cash flow challenges, and costs associated with building a brand                       

c)   Bonuses for members of the new venture team, legal fees, and lengthy product development cycles                       

d)   Attorney fees, capital investments, and marketing research                       

 

Question 7:- Which of the following in NOT a necessary characteristics of the founders:          

a)   Connectedness                       

b)   Commitment                       

c)   Ability to execute                       

d)   Ability to invest own money in the start up                       

 

Question 8:- Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new venture?

a)   To identify possible sources of funds                       

b)   To see if there are possible barriers to success                       

c)   To estimate the expected sales                       

d)   To explore potential customers                        

 

Question 9:- Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?    

a)   Idea Stage                       

b)   Product Planning Stage                       

c)   Product Development Stage                       

d)   Test Marketing Stage                       

 

Question 10:- All of the following are important elements of the financial data and projections section of a business plan EXCEPT: 

a)   SWOT analysis                       

b)   Break-even analysis                       

c)   Projected income statements                       

d)   Cost controls                       

 

Question 11:- A new venture`s business plan is important because ______.             

a)   It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.                       

b)   Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.                       

c)   Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.                       

d)   All the above.                        

 

Question 12:- Which of the following factors does the macro-environment not include?     

a)   Political and regulatory factors.                       

b)   Customer needs in a given market.                       

c)   Social and demographic factors.                       

d)   Technological changes.                       

 

Question 13:- Which of the following is false?    

a)   A business plan is often prepared by an existing company to ensure that growth is properly managed                       

b)   A business plan is usually not required when obtaining financing for a start-up                       

c)   If a business plan is completed for a start-up, it may help the entrepreneur avoid costly mistakes                       

d)   All of the given options                       

 

Question 14:- Idea of new product is tested in potential consumers to determine consumer acceptance at _______ stage.        

a)   Concept                       

b)   Product development                       

c)   Test marketing                       

d)   Commercialization                       

 

Question 15:- Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?            

a)   Business model                       

b)   Modelling                       

c)   Innovation                       

d)   Creative flexibility                       

 

Question 16:- Which of the following statements is false?            

a)   Market segmentation is a useful process for small businesses to undertake.                       

b)   Selling is essentially a matching process.                       

c)   A benefit is the value of a product feature to a customer.                        

d)   It is a good idea for small businesses to compete solely on price.                       

 

Question 17:- As a business grows, time management continues to be an issue, but the entrepreneur`s major concern usually becomes:   

a)   setting goals                       

b)   finding, retaining, and motivating qualified employees                       

c)   measuring performance.                       

d)   All of the given options                       

 

Question 18:- Which one of the following is not considered as one of the building blocks of the model entrepreneur?       

a)   technical skills.                       

b)   management competencies.                        

c)   business awareness.                       

d)   personal attributes.                       

 

Question 19:- A typical inventor is usually ________.      

a)   Highly creative & in love with the invention                       

b)   Does not encourage change                       

c)   Willing to modify the invention in order to augment commercial benefit                       

d)   None of the given options                       

 

Question 20:- A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?    

a)   Ecopreneur                       

b)   Technopreneur                       

c)   Intrapreneur                       

d)   Social Entrepreneur                       

 

Case Study

It was in the early 2000 that Ghosh witnessed small vegetable vendors (all women) in a Kolkata market paying interest of 5 (8 cents) for borrowing 500 (US$7.5) from moneylenders for half a day. Ghosh wondered that why should they pay an interest rate of over 700 per cent a year? One day he decided to enquire from those women. To his surprise, the women told Ghosh a different story. They said “We are not paying any interest; rather, we are just buying a cup of tea for the moneylender. Moreover, we are earning enough to afford this. Will a bank give us money? How else would we get money without documentation and a guarantor? These experiences had a far reaching impact on Ghosh. He realized that there was a fertile market for providing micro loans to the poor. He recalled “I felt that the potential of providing rural finance was huge, and if I tap the market, I can fulfil two things simultaneously - I can sustain myself, as well as provide sustainability to all those in the rural areas who needed much help       

Question 21:- Idea of new product is tested in potential consumers to determine consumer acceptance at _______ stage.        

a)   Concept                       

b)   Product development                       

c)   Test marketing                       

d)   Commercialization                       

 

Question 22:- Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?            

a)   Business model                       

b)   Modelling                       

c)   Innovation                       

d)   Creative flexibility                       

 

Question 23:- The business plan should be prepared by:

a)   Entrepreneur                        

b)   Consultant                       

c)   Engineer                       

d)   Small business administration services                       

 

Question 24:- Which of the following statements is true about business start-up requirements:           

a)   New business owners usually need to register for patent protection.                       

b)   The financial needs to start a new business depend on the nature of the venture                       

c)   Purchasing a franchise is usually easy and inexpensive for start-up business owners.                        

d)   Equipment is the least expensive requirement for a start-up business.                        

 

Question 25:- Which of the following activities is an example of preparing before attempting to sell an idea:           

a)   Explaining solutions to audience needs                       

b)   Overcoming objections from the audience                       

c)   Affirming the audience’s decision to “buy”                        

d)   Determining the details of your idea                       

 

Subject Code: GM06

Subject Name: BUSINESS LAW & CORPORATE GOVERNANCE

Component name: TERM END  Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022

Question 1:- Which are the methods in which an agency relationship, familiar in law, can be established?   

a)   by agreement                       

b)   by ratification                       

c)   by estoppel, necessity                        

d)   All of these                       

 

Question 2:- A breach of contract can be of _____breach.  

a)   Discharged                       

b)   illegal                       

c)   void                       

d)   none of these                        

 

Question 3:- How many parties are there to a promissory note?     

a)   two parties                       

b)   one party                       

c)   four party                       

d)   three parties                       

 

Question 4:- In pledge bailor is called _________.    

a)   pawnor                       

b)   pawnee                       

c)   receiver                       

d)   none of these                       

 

Question 5:- A owes B Rs.1000 but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to B for Rs.500/- on account of the debt. This is a:           

a)   valid contract                       

b)   voidable contract                       

c)   void contract                       

d)   unenforceable agreement                       

 

Question 6:- An agreement is caused by fraud, misrepresentation, & coercion is ________.

a)   voidable                       

b)   partially void                       

c)   valid                       

d)   All of these                       

 

Question 7:- Contingent goods belongs to_______goods.   

a)   Existing                       

b)   future                       

c)   contingent                       

d)   none of these                       

 

Question 8:- Is voidable contract?     

a)   partly valid agreement                       

b)   An illegal agreement                       

c)   All of these                       

d)   none of these                       

 

Question 9:- Consumer protection Act is applicable to:        

a)   immovable goods                       

b)   movable goods                       

c)   specific goods and services                       

d)   all goods and services                       

 

Question 10:- The total number of rights given to consumers as per the consumer protection Act is:

a)   5                       

b)   4                       

c)   6                       

d)   8                        

 

Question 11:- Fraud exists when it is shown that a false representation had been made________.

a)   knowingly                       

b)   unknowingly                       

c)   unintentionally                       

d)   recklessly                        

 

Question 12:- Which of the relationship raise presumption of undue influence?       

a)   landlord and tenant                       

b)   parents and child                       

c)   doctor and patient                       

d)   husband and wife                       

 

Question 13:- When the promisee refuses to accept performance from the promiser who offers to perform, it is:     

a)   attempted performance                       

b)   vicarious performance                       

c)   tender                       

d)   frustration of contract                       

 

Question 14:- Which amongst the following is not a correct statement with regard to Corporate Governance in India?         

a)   Every company must appoint an individual or firm as auditor                       

b)   The independent directors must attend atleast three meetings a year                       

c)   One or more women directors are recommended for certain classes of companies                       

d)   The maximum number of permissible directors cannot exceed 15 in a public limited company                       

 

Question 15:- If a contract contains an undertaking to perform impossibility , the contract is ________.

a)   void ab initio                       

b)   void                       

c)   voidable at the option of the plaintiff                       

d)   illegal                       

 

Question 16:- The contract of indemnity is a______.             

a)   contingent contract                       

b)   wagering contract                       

c)   Quasi-contract                       

d)   void agreement                       

 

Question 17:- S and P go into a shop . S says to the shopkeeper C, let P have the goods, and if he does not pay you, I will. This is a__________.             

a)   contract of guarantee                       

b)   contract of indemnity                       

c)   wagering contract                       

d)   Quasi-contract                       

 

Question 18:- A bailer is a ________.

a)   a right of a particular lien over the goods bailed                       

b)   a right of generation                        

c)   a right of both particular and general lien                       

d)   no lien at all over the goods bailed                       

 

Question 19:- In a sale, if the goods are destroyed, the loss falls on______.       

a)   The buyer                        

b)   The seller                       

c)   Partly on the buyer and partly on the seller                       

d)   The seller if the price has not been paid                       

 

Question 20:- The term property as used in the Sale of Goods Act,1930 means_________.      

a)   possession                       

b)   ownership                       

c)   ownership and possession both                       

d)   the subject matter of contract of sale                       

 

Case Study

Mr. A developed a shopping mall at Mumbai at the request of Mr. B who is a municipal corporator. Mr.C makes agreement to pay Rs.2,50,000. Mr. A accept the proposal of Mr.C .      

Question 21:- Can third party Mr. C enter into an agreement in this case?   

a)   yes                        

b)   No                       

 

Question 22:- If it’s a contract, what type of contract will it be?      

a)   void contract                       

b)   voidable contract                       

c)   unlawful consideration                       

d)   none of these                       

 

Question 23:- C is stranger between A and C hence no valid consideration between A and C because U/S 2 (D) anything is done voluntarily, there is no lawful consideration.

a)   is the judgement correct                       

b)   this is an invalid judgement                       

 

Question 24:- Can 4th party Mr.D offer land allotment commission to Mr. A once shops are constructed?   

a)   yes                        

b)   No                       

 

Question 25:- If Mr.D 4th Party fails to pay commission to Mr. A, what should Mr. A do to get commission? 

a)   file a legal case                       

b)   cannot file a legal case                       

  

Subject Code: IB06

Subject Name: INTERNATIONAL BUSINESS

Component name: TERM END  Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022 

Question 1:- Tax on imports is considered as example of-    

a)   Trade Barriers                       

b)   Collaterals                       

c)   Terms of trade                       

d)   Foreign Trade                       

 

Question 2:- International Labour Organization supports investments and foreign trade in India.      

a)   TRUE                       

b)   FALSE                       

 

Question 3:- TRIPS coverage under the WTO encompasses 

a)   Patents                       

b)   Copyright                       

c)   Trademarks                       

d)   All of the above                       

 

Question 4:- __________is the international treaty that committed signatories to lowering barriers to the free flow of goods across national borders and led to the WTO.             

a)   GAT                       

b)   GATT                       

c)   AOA                       

d)   None of the above                       

 

Question 5:- Which of the following is the right sequence of stages of internationalization?

a)   Domestic, International, Multinational, Global, Transnational                       

b)   Domestic, Transnational, Global, International, Multinational                       

c)   Domestic, Multinational, International, Transnational, Global                       

d)   Domestic, International, Transnational, Multinational, Global                       

 

Question 6:- Firms success required HRM policies to be congruent with the firm` s strategy.

a)   TRUE                        

b)   FALSE                       

 

Question 7:- Which of the following are the advantages of Geocentric Staffing approach?

a)   Uses human resources efficiently                       

b)   Helps build strong culture and informal management of network                       

c)   Both A and B                       

d)   None of the above                       

 

Question 8:- Management philosophy that takes as its central focus the need to improve the quality of company`s product and services:             

a)   Mass Customization                       

b)   Materials Management                       

c)   Total Quality Management                       

d)   Flexible manufacturing technology                       

 

Question 9:- Which of the following are features of Global capital market which may attract International Business from Borrower`s perspective?   

a)   Lower cost of Capital                       

b)   Portfolio Diversification                       

c)   Both A and B                        

d)   None of the above                       

 

Question 10:- Which of the following is a regional grouping?           

a)   NAFTA                       

b)   SAPTA                       

c)   SAARC                       

d)   All of the above                        

 

Question 11:- When did WTO come into effect?       

a)   1996                       

b)   1992                       

c)   1994                       

d)   1995                       

 

Question 12:- Which of the following are the highlights of latest foreign trade policy?  

a)   Digital India                       

b)   Status Holders                       

c)   Mandatory documents to be reduced to three for imports                       

d)   All of the above                       

 

Question 13:- _________scheme enables importation of capital goods at zero custom duty for pre production, production and post production.     

a)   EPCG scheme                       

b)   FDI scheme                       

c)   TRIPS                       

d)   TRIMS                       

 

Question 14:- Which of the following are the advantages of Regional Grouping?       

a)   Countries take comparative advantage by supplying goods not available with the host countries                        

b)   Negotiation with a few countries is easier                       

c)   RTA increases the bargaining power of the members during WTO                       

d)   All of the above                       

 

Question 15:- Regional trading agreements refer to an agreement between countries in a geographical region to reduce barriers,  to encourage free movement of goods and services and factors of production, across the borders of its members.        

a)   TRUE                       

b)   FALSE                      

 

Question 16:- Foreign Exchange Management Act replaced Foreign Exchange Regulation Act in the year 

a)   1990                       

b)   2000                       

c)   2021                       

d)   2022                        

 

Question 17:- ___________is the standardized numerical method of classifying traded products.   

a)   Harmonized System                       

b)   Numerical System                       

c)   Coding Trade                       

d)   None f the above                        

 

Question 18:- ___________has been set up to promote exports by Government of India under Ministry of commerce. 

a)   International Trade committee                       

b)   Export Promotion Council                       

c)   Mediation Centre                       

d)   Supreme Court                       

 

Question 19:- Which of the following are the objectives any Global strategy should target at-a)   Flexibility, Efficiency & Learning                       

b)   Growth                       

c)   Employment                       

d)   None of the above                       

 

Question 20:- Why competing across national borders make strategy making more complex?

a)   Location based advantage for certain countries                        

b)   Difference in govt policy and economic conditions                       

c)   Currency exchange rate risk                       

d)   All of the above                       

 

Case Study

Examining the impact of Globalization

Reference- https://moderndiplomacy.eu/2021/07/27/examining-the-impacts-of-globalization-a-case-study-of-afghanistan/

 Globalization is often considered as one of the most important and transformative events in the 21st century. It has led to the creation of multiple influential actors, rise of the information revolution and the formation of various instruments enabling cooperation and interdependence. Of the key aspects in the concept of globalization is the creation of state institutions which have allowed for monitoring, control and economic investments thus enabling greater connectivity with the people across the globe. The information revolution which came as a result of increase in technological prowess and development of communication technologies has led to the creation of virtual communication spaces. Big technological cooperation’s were able to exercise influence in the social media space and enable a conducive environment of presentation of various discourses. Globalization has also had a significant influence in the manipulation, coordination and control of all manner of discourse directed at various prominent political figures. From state to non-state actors all have been impacted by globalization. Globalization in 3rd world countries saw an interesting and significant transformation where nations sought to gain advantage of the political and economic expansion which came as a result of increased connectivity of markets and political institutions.

Question 21:- Which of the following are the disadvantages of Globalization?

a)   Economic Growth                       

b)   Spread of Knowledge                       

c)   Increased Investment                       

d)   Income Gap between lower income country and high income countries have increased                        

 

Question 22:- Growing economic interdependence of countries worldwide through increasing volume and variety of cross-border transactions in goods and services, free international capital flows, and more rapid and widespread diffusion of technology is referred to as_________. 

a)   Globalization                       

b)   Expansion                       

c)   Reflection                       

d)   Mediation                       

 

Question 23:- Globalization may help in-       

a)   Political and economic expansion                       

b)   Great connectivity across the globe                       

c)   Rise of information revolution                       

d)   All of the above                       

 

Question 24:- Which of the following promotes Globalization?       

a)   External Trade                       

b)   Internal Trade                       

c)   Trade at Large scale                       

d)   Trade at small scale                       

 

Question 25:- Globalization helps in ensuring economic and social benefit to-       

a)   Labour                       

b)   Consumer                       

c)   Producer                       

d)   All of the above                       

  

Subject Code: GM07

Subject Name:    RESEARCH METHODOLOGY     

 Assignment Start     Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date:     20/07/2022

 

Question 1:- Which of the options would be considered as a Research Problem?

a)           Develop a marketing strategy for a product

b)          What criteria does consumers use when selecting AC for their house.

c)           Improve competitive position of a brand

d)          How to respond to a price cut by competition

 

Question 2:- A research design is defined as a :

a)           framework for research

b)          blue print for research

c)           both (a) and (b)

d)          none of the above


Question 3:- A research design would consist of:

a)           Define information needed

b)          specify the measurement and scaling procedures

c)           specify sampling procedure

d)          all the above

 

Question 4:- Purpose of exploratory research design is to    .

a)           develop one or more hypothesis

b)          to conclude people`s preferences

c)           both (a) and (b)

d)          none of the above

 

Question 5:- Exploratory design includes the following option:

a)           study of secondary data

b)          focus group study

c)           depth interview

d)          all the above

 

Question 6:- Sampling methods used for exploratory study include:

a)           random sampling

b)          convenience sampling

c)           systematic sampling

d)          cluster sampling

 

Question 7:- Longitudinal design is adopted when we wish to know               .

a)     changes in behaviour between samples

b)     changes in behaviour over time

c)     both (a) and (b)

d)     none of the above

 

Question 8:- Longitudinal design uses samples that are:

a)     same over different points of time

b)     different samples over different points of time

c)     different samples from different groups

d)     none of the above

 

Question 9:- In a causal study the characteristic of the independent and dependent variables must be such:

a)     that the occurrence of the independent variable is before the effect on the dependent variable is seen

b)     a change in the values of the independent variable must show a corresponding change in the dependent variable

c)     all other variables that can effect the dependent variable other than the independent variable in the study must be nullified

d)     all the above

 

Question 10:- Non sampling errors consists of:

a)     sampling frame error

b)     cheating error

c)     recording error

d)     all the above

 

Question 11:- Secondary data research helps us in:

a)     define the problem better

b)     gives us the design that can be adopted

c)     idea of the sample size

d)     all the above

 

Question 12:- Projective techniques include:

a)     association techniques

b)     third person techniques

c)     both (a) and (b)

d)     none of the above

 

Question 13:- If data is to be collected in a sample of 500 people consisting of simple MCQ questions then the best method would be:

a)     telephonic survey

b)     personal interview

c)     observation method

d)     all the above

 

Question 14:- A personal interview would be best suited when        .

a)     questions need thinking before answering

b)     questionnaire which are long

 c)     when sample size is small

d)     all the above

 

Question 15:- A mall intercept would be considered as:

a)     random sampling

b)     convenience sampling

c)     quota sampling

d)     cluster sampling


Question 16:- A random sample would require:

a)     identifying the entire population uniquely

b)     take lottery through random numbers

c)     both (a) and (b)

d)     none of the above

 

Question 17:- In a stratified sampling the strata`s are created based on:

a)     homogeneity between different strata and heterogeneity within the strata

b)     homogeneity within strata and heterogeneity between strata

c)     homogeneity of the variable is not needed

d)     all the above

 

Question 18:- Quota sampling is a form of:

a)     non probability sampling

b)     probability sampling

c)     random sampling

d)     none of the above

 

Question 19:- A comparative scaling techniques results in    .

a)     nominal scale

b)     ordinal scale

c)     interval scale

d)     ratio scale

 

Question 20:- A non-comparative scaling techniques results in         .

a)     nominal scale

b)     ordinal scale

c)     interval scale

d)     ratio scale

Case Study

A researcher wanted to check whether the metro train services between starting stations and destination station was more than 90 minutes as promised by the metro authorities. For this research a sample of 20 trips were taken and a sample mean of the time taken for the trip was noted as 95 minutes with a sample standard deviation of 8 minutes. Consider a 5% level of Type I error is permissible. Based on the above problem answer the following questions:

Question 21:- The null and alternative hypothesis for the above problem is:

a)     Null: μ >90 min; Alt: μ =90 min

b)     Null: μ =90 min; Alt: μ > 90 min

c)     Null: μ <90 min; Alt: μ ≠ 90 min

d)     none of the above

 

Question 22:- The Test statistic used in the above situation would be:

a) t- test

b) Z-test

c) F-test

d) none of the above

 

Question 23:- The degrees of freedom for the above situation would be:

a) 20

b) 18

c) 19

d) not applicable

 

Question 24:- The standard error for the above would be:

a) 1.788

b) 14.311

c) 0.4

d) none of these


Question 25:- This test will be:

a) single tail

b) two tail

c) either single or two tail can be used

d) none of the above

Subject Code: FM12

Subject Name: FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT

Component name: TERM END            

Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022

Question 1:- If the NPV of a project is negative then which of the given statement is correct?

a)           IRR of the project is > the cost of the project

b)          IRR of the project is = the cost of the project

c)           IRR of the project is < the cost of the project

d)          None of the above

 

Question 2:- If the degree of total leverage is 5 and % change in sales is10, then % change in EPS will be?

a)           20

b)          50

c)           30

d)          40

 

Question 3:- Which of the following is not a source of long -term finance?

a)           Equity shares

b)          Debentures

c)           Treasury bills

d)          None of the above

 

Question 4:- What are the different motives of holding cash in a business?

a)           Precautionary motive

b)          Transaction motive

c)           Speculative motive

d)          All of the above

 

Question 5:- If the current assets and current liabilities are Rs 2,000 lakh and Rs 1,200 lakh respectively. How much amount can be borrowed on a short-term basis without reducing current ratio below 1.5?

a)           Rs.1,200 lakh

b)          Rs.1,000 lakh

c)           Rs. 400 lakh

d)          Rs.1,400 lakh

 

Question 6:- Which of the given statement is incorrect?

a)           Payback period method does not take in to account time value of money

b)          Pay back period method comes modern technique of Capital budgeting

c)           Payback period is easy to understand.

d)          Both A & C

 

 

Question 7:- The Inventory turnover ratio A ltd. is 4 times and that of B Ltd. is 5 times then which of the given statement is incorrect?

a)     A Ltd. is functioning better than B Ltd. in terms of converting its stock in to sales

b)     B Ltd. is functioning better than A Ltd. in terms of converting its stock in to sales

c)     Both A Ltd. and B Ltd. Are equally good

d)     None

 

Question 8:- Which of the following is a/ are money market instrument(s):

a)     Treasury bill

b)     Commercial papers

c)     Debentures

d)     Both A & B

 

Question 9:- What is the objective of Financial Management?

a)     Profit maximisation

b)     Maximisation of EPS

c)     Wealth Maximisation

d)     None of the above

 

Question 10:- If the IRR of a given project is greater than its cost of capital, then:

a)     NPV of the given project will be negative

b)     NPV of the given project will be positive

c)     NPV of the given project will be equal to zero

d)     Can`t say about the NPV as the information is incomplete

 

Question 11:- According to Gordon’s model, the optimal dividend pay-out ratio for a firm whose cost of capital and return on investment are 15% and 12% respectively is?

a)     40%

b)     60%

c)     80%

d)     100%

 

Question 12:- If the Current assets of a business are less than its current liabilities, then:

a)     Long term funds have been used for financing long term assets.

b)     Short term funds have been used for financing long term assets.

c)     Long term funds have been used for financing short term assets

d)     Long term funds have been used for financing long term assets.

 

Question 13:- Which of the following is an example of diversifiable risk?

a)     Recession in the economy

b)     Change in the tax structure

c)     Inadequate supply of raw materials

d)     None of the above

 

Question 14:- Z Ltd. issues 1,00,000 14% debentures after 5 years at Rs.110 each. The commission payable to underwriters and brokers is 10% and the applicable tax rate is 45%. Calculate the cost of debt.

a)     12%

b)     11.70%

c)     13.50%

d)     14%

 

Question 15:- Which of the following statements represents the financing decision of a company?

a)     Designing an optimal capital structure by using suitable financial instruments

b)     Procuring new machineries for the R & D activities

c)     Recruiting the new employees in order to increase the productivity of the company

d)     All of the above

 

Question 16:- A finance manager needs to take all the given decisions except:

a)     Financing

b)     Investing

c)     Dividend

d)     Operating

 

Question 17:- As per Walter`s model of dividend policy if the rate of return on investment is greater than the cost of equity, then:

a)     D/P ratio will be 100%

b)     D/P ratio will be zero

c)     D/P ratio will be 50%

d)     None of the above

 

Question 18:- Mr. Aman borrowed Rs.1,25,000 was borrowed at an effective interest rate of 10 percent per annum. The amount has to be repaid with interest in ten equal annual instalments. Each instalment is payable at the end of every year. What will be amount of each instalment?

a)     Rs.20,342

b)     Rs.10,852

c)     Rs.40,342

d)     Rs.22,442

 

Question 19:- The dividend pay-out ratio of a firm is 40%. The firm follows traditional approach to dividend policy with a multiplier of 6. The P/E ratio of the firm is:

a)     5.4

b)     6.2

c)     4.4

d)     3.4

 

Question 20:- The risk-free rate is 10% and the market return is 15%. Stock A has a beta of 1.2 and is currently selling at Rs.30. If the expected dividend on the stock is Rs.4, then what will be the growth rate of the company?

a)     3.67%

b)     4.57%

c)     8.77%

d)     2.67%

 

Case Study

 

Mr. Binit, Finance manager of S Ltd. is evaluating the present credit policy of his company. Under the present policy the company is offering 3% discount for payment within 10 days. The analysis of accounts receivable shows an average collection period of 30 days. Mr. Binit is of the opinion that the discount should be discounted as it is affecting the profitability of the company in the present scenario of rising manufacturing cost. It is estimated that if the discount is discontinued the average collection period would increase to 35 days. Presently 30% of the total customers are availing discount and if the discount is withdrawn, these customers can also be expected to pay along with the other customers. The marketing manager informed him that as a result sales might drop 2,10,000 units to 2,00,000 units per year. The selling price per unit is Rs.45. The average cost per unit is Rs.50 and variable cost to sales ratio is 75%. The required rate of return on the company`s investment is 20%.

 

Question 21:- Which of the following statement is true?

a)           As change in profit is negative, Mr. Binit should not go for withdrawing discount

b)          As change in profit is negative, Mr. Binit should go for withdrawing discount

c)           As there is no change in profit change in profit is negative, Mr. Binit should go for withdrawing discount

d)          As change in profit is positive , Mr. Binit should go for withdrawing discount

 

Question 22:- Increase in investment receivables is:

a)           Rs.1,12,500

b)          Rs.1,12,550

c)           Rs.1,13,500

d)          Rs.1,31,250

 

Question 23:- The loss of contribution due to increase in sales is.

a)           Rs.1,13,500

b)          Rs.1,14,500

c)           Rs.1,12,500

d)          Rs.1,15,500

 

Question 24:- Savings in receivables investment due to decrease in sales will be.

a)           Rs.32,480.50

b)          Rs.32,812.50

c)           Rs.31,812.50

d)          Rs.32,012.50

 

Question 25:- The cost of financing the increased investment in receivables will be.

a)           Rs.29,687.50

b)          Rs.9,687.50

c)           Rs.19,687.50

d)          Rs.11,687.50

Subject Code: GM02

Subject Name: ECONOMIC & SOCIAL ENVIRONMENT

Component name: TERM END            

Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022

 Question 1:-     is the blue print that guides the behaviour of people in community .

a)           Culture

b)          Society

c)           Responsibility

d)          None of these

 

Question 2:- Feeling of insecurity and confusion caused by strangeness of new environment is called.

a)           Cultural shock

b)          Cultural Adaptation

c)           Cultural Transmission

d)          Cultural Trait

 

Question 3:- Technical devices becoming obsolete and new features in form of google drive and cloud computing replacing technology , shows which characteristic of business environment-

a)           Dynamic

b)          Uncertainty

c)           Relativity

d)          None of these

 

Question 4:- All the factors that are within the organization which impact strength and causes weakness of strategic nature refers to-

a)           Internal Environment

b)          External Environment

c)           Direct Environment

d)          Indirect Environment

 

Question 5:- Which of the following are the forces to scan the environment as per Michael Porter Environmental scanning method-

a)           Potential Entrance

b)          Suppliers

c)           Rivalry among existing firms

d)          All of the above


Question 6:- State True or False Objective of SWOT analysis is to provide framework to reflect on firm’s ability to overcome barriers and avail of the opportunities emerging in the environment.

a)           TRUE

b)          FALSE


Question 7:- Foreign Exchange Management Act replaced Foreign Exchange Regulation Act in the year  .

a)     1990

b)     2000

c)     2021

d)     2022

 

Question 8:- Section 3 of Chapter II of FEMA deals with-

a)     Holding of Foreign Exchange

b)     Dealing in Foreign Exchange

c)     Current Account transactions

d)     Export of Goods & Services

 

Question 9:- As per the amendment introduced in Consumer Protection Act, the ebill introduces    as a mode of consumer dispute resolution.

a)     Court

b)     Mediation Cell

c)     Arbitration None of the above

 

Question 10:- Growing economic interdependence of countries worldwide through increasing volume and variety of cross-border transactions in goods and services, free international capital flows, and more rapid and

widespread diffusion of technology is referred to as .

a)     Globalization

b)     Expansion

c)     Reflection

d)     Mediation

 

Question 11:-   is a bank regulation that sets the minimum reserves each bank must hold with the Reserve Bank of India.

a)     Statutory Liquidity Ration

b)     Open market operations

c)     Cash Reserve Ration

d)     Non of these

 

Question 12:- When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more              .

a)     Affordable

b)     Expensive

c)     Cheap

d)     No changes

 

Question 13:- RBI issues periodical letters to bank to exercise control over credit. This tool is referred to as:

a)     Rationing of credit

b)     Direction Action

c)     Moral Suasion

d)     None of these

 

Question 14:- Which of the following are tools of fiscal policy?

a)     Taxation

b)          Public Borrowing

 

c)     Deficit Financing

d)     All of the above

 

Question 15:- As per the competition Act 2002, any trade practice that tends to block the flow of capital into production and also bring in conditions of delivery to effect the flow of supplies leading to unjustified cost is referred to as          .

a)     Unfair trade practice

b)     Restrictive trade practice

c)     Abuse of Dominance

d)     None of these

 

Question 16:- State True or False Regional trading agreements refer to an agreement between countries in a geographical region to reduce barriers, to encourage free movement of goods and services and factors of

production, across the borders of its members.

a)     TRUE

b)     FALSE

 

Question 17:- Which of the following are the advantages of Regional Grouping?

a)     Countries take comparative advantage by supplying goods not available with the host  countries

b)     Negotiation with a few countries is easier

c)     RTA increases the bargaining power of the members during WTO

d)     All of the above

 

Question 18:- Countries eliminate duties among themselves while maintaining the same with outsiders comes under type of grouping.

a)     Preferential Trade Agreements

b)     Free Trade Area

c)     Custom Union

d)     Common Market

 

Question 19:- Which of the following factors help you to decide the technology one should use for production?

a)     Comparative Cost of Production

b)     Effect on employment

c)     Use of Natural Resources

d)     All of the above

 

Question 20:- Which of the following is not the characteristic of good business?

a)     Diversification

b)     Statice Nature

c)     Large Size

d)     Technological Revolution

 

Case Study

 

Corporate social responsibility is a strategic endeavour

(Author- M. Muneer is co-founder and chief evangelist of the non-profit Medici Institute , https://www.livemint.com/opinion/corporate-social-responsibility-is-a-strategic-endeavour- 11654187352364.html)

 

Last year’s amendment requiring audits by independent agencies for spends over ₹10 crore and projects over ₹1 crore was a good move to stop leaks from CSR allocations. With nearly two-thirds of India still living in poverty by today’s quality-of-life standards, the importance of CSR can’t be overestimated. Companies should take CSR more seriously and responsibly.

Why CSR? Giving back to society is the broad objective. But what if you could build your brand and business while doing social work? Taking care of local communities around factory locations, as Tata Steel has done in Jamshedpur for decades before India’s CSR mandate, can go a very long way. Well chosen cause marketing can enhance brand value, even if its top- or bottom line benefits are not immediately apparent. Whether mandated or not, companies need to use CSR fund wisely, instead of it being a sign-off item for the chief financial or human resources officer, who may be inclined to allot money to something that catches the CEO’s fancy. Firms need to check for strategic fit. Every worthy cause cannot be funded. Just as one’s business strategy must deliver differentiated offerings, so should CSR initiatives. Here are few guidelines for CSR efforts:

 

Give more than just money: Don’t just allocate funds. Involve the business as a true partner. Attend joint meetings, conduct regular reviews on the progress. Let the partner know of your business needs: NGOs partners should know that the companies which award money from their CSR budget are sincere about the causes they pick , but have business interest too.

 

Bridge language gap between the NGOs and the company: As both tend to focus on different aspects of the same cause, this divergence could become a serious threat to proper execution.

Last but not the least, put metrices and governance system in place: Both partners should know if the mission is getting accomplished and whether progress is on track. Companies can adopt two types of metrices, one set to measure the impact of CSR cause being supported and another to track the level of awareness within the community.

 

Question 21:- Which responsibility comes under social responsibility?

a)     Economic Responsibility

b)     Legal Responsibility

c)     Ethical Responsibility

d)     All of the above

 

Question 22:- Business responsibility is towards-

a)     Shareholders

b)     Workers

c)     Government

d)     All of the above

 

Question 23:- Which of the following arguments would work in favour of corporate social responsibility?

a)     Business which survives using the resources of society has a responsibility to the society

b)     Social involvement leads to healthy relationship between society & business

c)       Social involvement would have favourable financial effects (e.g. recycling of waste)

d)     All of the above

 

Question 24:- Which of the following arguments would work against the social responsibility?

a)     There are Govt. & social organizations to carry out social activities.

b)     It would affect the economic health of business

c)     Both A and B

d)       None of the above

 

Question 25:-   model talks about Social responsibility of business.

a)           Caroll`s Model

b)          Cournot`s duopoly model

c)           P Sweezy Model

d)          Chamberlin Model

 

Subject Code: HR01

Subject Name: HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

Component name: TERM END

Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022

 Question 1:- Human Resource Management in most of the organisation is a

a)           line function

b)          staff function

c)           both of the above

d)          none of the above

 

Question 2:- A job analysis questionnaire should include all but the following

a)           job evaluation

b)          performance standards

c)           job duties

d)          working Condition

 

Question 3:- The basis of Human Resource Planning is

a)           the economic trends

b)          demand of the employees

c)           strategic plans of the firm

d)          budgets

 

Question 4:- The most reliable and valid tests are generally

a)           Attitude tests

b)          Intelligence tests

c)           Personality tests

d)          Performance tests

 

Question 5:- Reasons of layoff include all but

a)           seasonal fluctuations in demand

b)          piling up of inventory

c)           union activities of employees

d)          shortage of power and raw materials

 

Question 6:- Which of the following is a future oriented appraisal technique

a)           MBO

b)          Rating scale

c)           BARS

d)          Field review method

 

Question 7:- Group incentives would work best among

a)   accountants

b)   lawyers

c)   car sales people

d)   assembly line workers

 

Question 8:- Off the job management training methods include all but

a)   The case study method

b)   Coaching/understudy

c)   Management games

d)   Seminars and conferences

 

Question 9:- Which of the following is NOT a likely factor in determining an organization`s compensation strategy?

a)   The organization`s ability to pay

b)   Influence of union/s

c)   Location of the organization

d)   The organization`s job classification system

 

Question 10:- Employee mentoring programme can be

a)   Formal

b)   Informal

c)   Both A and B

d)   Can’t say

 

Question 11:- Job Instruction Training (JIT) is a

a)   five- step instructional process

b)   six- step instructional process

c)   four-step instructional process

d)   three-step instructional process

 

Question 12:- Managers do not apply for international assignments for all but the following reason

a)   Career concerns and interests

b)   Cultural considerations

c)   Family issues

d)   glamour

 

Question 13:- In which stage of the career, employees strive hard to retain their established name and fame

a)   establishment stage

b)   maintenance stage

c)   exploratory stage

d)   stage of decline

 

Question 14:- A job description is

a)   a group of related activities and duties

b)   the different duties and responsibilities performed by an employee

c)   a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work

d)   a statement of the tasks, duties and responsibilities of a job

 

Question 15:- Role Playing is often used to

a)   model behaviour

b)   change results

c)   learn skills

d)   change attitudes

 

Question 16:- Training

a)   is short term in nature

b)   focuses on the employees` current job

c)   mainly imparted to improve technical skills

d)   all of the options

 

Question 17:- The first factor in deciding the supply of labour is

a)   developing staffing plans

b)   issuing advertisements

c)   analysing labour markets

d)   auditing present employees

 

Question 18:- The negative aspect of promotion from within is

a)   lower morale

b)   employee turnover

c)   career prospects

d)   idea stagnation

 

Question 19:- HR activities are typically carried out by

a)   line managers

b)   staff managers

c)   neither line nor staff managers

d)   both line and staff managers

 

Question 20:- Objective-based rating scales are

a)   subjectively determined

b)   based on a point-based system

c)   measures of performance against objectives set

d)   manager allocated rating scales

 

Case Study

Ms Koshtuva Ghosh is Director PM & IR in a PSU. Assuming he is interviewing you for management trainee`s position in the IR cell, you may now give response to the following five questions being asked to you.

 

Question 21:- Collective bargaining in India

a)   statutory

b)   non-statutory

c)   can’t say

d)   Not sure

 

Question 22:- The concept of Quality Circle originated in

a)   Japan

b) USA

c) India

d) China

 

Question 23:- The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides for

a)           registration of Trade Unions in India

b)          recognition of Trade Unions in India

c)           both of the above

d)          none of the options given

 

Question 24:- Voluntary method of prevention and settlement of Industrial disputes include all but

a)           collective bargaining

b)          joint consultations

c)           code of discipline

d)          labour administration machinery

 

Question 25:- Industrial Disputes Act, 1942 provides for which one of the following worker’s participative forum in India?

a)           local council

b)          work committees

c)           JMC

d)          worker’s director

Subject Code: MM01

Subject Name: MARKETING MANAGEMENT             

Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022

Component name: TERM END

Question 1:- Companies that practice both a reactive and proactive marketing orientation are implementing a and are likely to be the most successful.

a)           Total market orientation

b)          External focus

c)           Customer focus

d)          Competitive, customer focus

 

Question 2:- In latent demand, consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by a?

a)           Future Product

b)          Expected Product

c)           Latent Product

d)          Existing Product

 

Question 3:- Today, marketing must be understood in a new sense that can be characterized as:

a)           “Get there first with the effective price .”

b)          “Management of youth demand.”

c)           “Satisfying customer needs.”

d)          “Telling and selling.”

 

Question 4:- Which of the following statements is the most correct statement?

a)           “The delivery of Goods& Services from producers to their ultimate consumers or users includes many different activities. These different activities are known as marketing.“

b)          Marketing is to ensure that the product is easily & effectively moved from the point of production to the target market & ensures that the product can be easily accessed by customers.”

c)           Marketing is the activity, set of institutions & processes for creating, communicating, delivering & exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners & society.

d)          “Marketing is the last step in the chain of commerce where a buyer exchanges cash for a seller's good or service, or the activity of trying to bring this about.”

 

Question 5:- Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):

a)           Demand

b)          Idea

c)           Product

d)          Service

 

Question 6:- In marketing, the term product:

 a)          refers only to tangible items that can be seen, tasted, or touched.

b)          is a broad concept that refers to anything that can be offered for use and consumption, in exchange for money or some other form of value.

c)           is limited in meaning to goods, services, and ideas only.

d)          never refers to such things as package design, brand name, or warranty.

 

Question 7:- An organization with several product lines and all the product lines have several items with variety. This combination is called  

a)           Product mix

b)          Brand mix

c)           Consumer mix

d)          Packaging mix

 

Question 8:- Vineeta Singh of Sugar cosmetics observed: In the factory, we make cosmetics; in the store ?

a)           we sell quality

b)          we sell hope

c)           we challenge competitors

d)          we implement ads

 

Question 9:- Original products, product improvements, product modifications, and new brands that a firm

develops through its own research and development efforts are called:

a)           Products mix

b)          Concept products

c)           New products.

d)          Products lines

 

Question 10:- At which stage of NPD we start looking at the sales history of similar products and surveying market opinion?

a)           Business analysis

b)          Commercialization

c)           Concept development and testing

d)          Marketing strategy development

 

Question 11:- Haldiram wants to expand its line of food products. The managers conduct surveys from customers to determine which food items would appeal to customers. What is Haldiram trying to do here?

a)           Business analysis

b)          Idea generation

c)           Idea screening

d)          Test marketing

 

Question 12:- Sales force compensation should direct the sales force toward activities that are consistent with?

a)           Overall company strategies

b)          Overall company objectives

c)           Overall department objectives

d)          Overall marketing objectives

 

Question 13:- Newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to organization-sponsored events are most closely associated with the marketing mix activity of:

a)           Pricing

b)          Distribution

c)           Product development

d)          Promotion

 

Question 14:- The        delivers to us a wide array of offerings, either directly or indirectly, through business markets, to serve our wants and needs.

a)           aggregate marketing system

b)          planning excellence

c)           a quality rift

d)          a value line

 

Question 15:- In order to understand different elements and benefits, we refer to three different product levels. This level consists of the physical good or delivered service that provides the expected benefit.

a)           Core Product Level.

b)          Embodied Product Level.

c)           Augmented Product Level.

d)          Intangible Product Level.

 

Question 16:- are products that consumers had not planned to buy but are persuaded at the very last minute to pick up and put in their trolley or basket.

a)           Staple products

b)          Impulse products

c)           Emergency products

d)          Speciality products

 

Question 17:- reflect a purchaser' s high level of involvement in the purchase decision. There is a high perceived risk in these decisions so consumers spend a great deal of time, care, and energy searching, formulating, and making the final decision.

a)           Durable goods

b)          Non-durable goods

c)           Convenience products

d)          Services


Question 18:- Which of the following are bought very infrequently, are very expensive and represent a very high risk?

a)           Speciality products

b)          Shopping product

c)           Generic products

d)          Branded products

 

Question 19:- This branding policy requires that all the products use the organization ”s name, either entirely or in part, e.g. Microsoft, Heinz, and Kellogg "s.

a)           Fam ily branding

b)          Individual branding

c)           Corporate brands

d)          Manufacturer brand

 

Question 20:- A key benefit of the STP process is:

a)          more effective and efficient matching of company resources to targeted market segments promising the greatest ROMI.

b)          identifying targeted market segments and choosing customers.

c)           examining and identifying growth opportunities in the market through the identification of new customers, growth segments, or new product uses.

d)          All of the above.

 Case Study

Zomato is an Indian group founded in Delhi NCR in 2008 by Deepender Goyal and Pankaj Chadha. Zomato originally began as a ' " Foodie Bay" but was renamed ”' Zomato; in November 2010. Two IIT graduates, Deepender Goyal and Pankaj Chadha were formed to found Zomato.

Restaurant Listings / Advertising: Zomato was merely a listing website and a restaurant directory in its first avatar. This brought in revenues from ads from restaurants that entered the network. Extending this further after the introduction of food delivery and restaurant reservations, Zomato now charges restaurant commissions to be prominently put on the list. Restaurants can pay for promoting their events or deals as well as their overall banner which brings increased visibility and conversions from users of Zomato.

Food Delivery: For example, Zomato charges a commission to the restaurants on the basis of orders through its food delivery company. Although users pay a delivery fee, Zomato receives a commission for each delivery to restaurants which are then divided between the delivery partner and the client. Restaurant commissions differ depending on whether Zomato is shipping, or whether the restaurant is using its own riders. This is said to add to the overall profits of the company in a limited way due to the massive rivalry and the need for profound discounts etc.

Subscription programs: With Zomato Gold for customers and guests, and restaurant subscription options, Zomato has opened up a steady revenue stream. While users are paying a subscription fee to access the Zomato Gold loyalty program which brings exclusive deals, restaurants are also paying a monthly fee to be part of Zomato" s bouquet. Restaurants also pay Zomato a monthly fee for miscellaneous services such as live monitoring, tamper- proof packaging branded with Zomato, and more.

Challenges faced by Zomato

There is already a very strong competition on the market, which has defined customer criteria to succeed. Zomato brands stake its name if anything goes wrong that ends customers are affected by. The biggest challenge is to keep up high margins because of costs associated with food production, processing, and supply.

Question 21:- are those who address the same target market but provide a different offering to satisfy the market need, for example Haldirams, Dine-out, MTR foods in case of Zomato.

a)           Direct competitions

b)            Direct suppliers

c)           Indirect distributors

d)          Indirect competitions

 

Question 22:- Zomato moved from just listing of restaurants to food delivery . This is an example of:

a)           intensive growth

b)          economies of scale

c)           diversification

d)          integrative growth

 

Question 23:- The quadrant of the Boston Consulting Group (BCG) matrix that represents both a high market share and a high rate of market growth as in case of Zomato will be:

a)           cash cows

b)          question marks

c)           stars

d)          dogs

 

Question 24:- Zomato' s focus for the food delivery business has been on

a)           Cost

b)          Quality

c)           Speedy

d)          Dependabilty

 

Question 25:- Zomato follows              based on the principle that we should provide customers with exactly what they want, based on the benefits they derive from using a particular proposition.

a)           Lifestyle analysis

b)          Benefits sought approach

c)           Media usage

d)          Perceptual mapping

Subject Code: OM01

Subject Name: OPERATIONSMANAGEMENT

Component name: TERM END

Assignment StartDate: 10/07/2022

Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022

       Question 1:- What type of process would a paper mill be most likely to use?

a)           Continuous flow

b)          Project

c)           Job shop

d)          Flow shop

 

Question 2:- Measurements taken at various points in the transformation process for control purposes are called:

a)           plans

b)          directions

c)           controls

d)          feedback

 

Question 3:- Product design and process selection are examples of               decisions.

a)           financial

b)          tactical

c)           system design

d)          system operation

 

Question 4:- What would be the productivity if a machine produced 50 units in 3 hours?

a)           0.066 units per hr

b)          16.66 units per hr

c)           6.766 units per hr

d)          60.66 units per hr

 

Question 5:- Which one of the following refers to the volume of output at which total cost equals total revenue?

a)           Optimal operating rate

b)          Feasible volume

c)           Utilization

d)          Break even point

 

Question 6:- The process selection should take into account all of the following EXCEPT:

a)           Capacity planning

b)          Design of work systems

c)           Production forecasts

d)          Selection of technology

 

 

Question 7:- Which of the following is an advantage of standardization?

a)     Frozen designs

b)     Customized parts

c)     Interchangeable parts

d)     Reduced variety

 

Question 8:- Assembly lines relate most closely to a:

a)     Functional layout

b)     Product layout

c)     Process layout

d)     Departmental layout

 

Question 9:- Which one of the following is an example of regional factors that affect location decisions?

a)     Transportation

b)     Quality of life

c)     Development support

d)     Location of new markets

 

Question 10:- ABC Corporation has planned to purchase a new machine. Total annual fixed cost is Rs. 10,000, variable cost is Rs. 5 per unit and revenue is Rs. 7 per unit. What would be the break even point?

a)     833 units

b)     2000 units

c)     5000 units

d)     1012 units

 

Question 11:- Assuming no safety stock, what is the re-order point (R) given an average daily demand of 50 units, a lead time of 10 days and 625 units on hand?

a)      550

b)     500

c)     715

d)     450

 

Question 12:- Which one the following is focused to reduce the incidence of failures in the plant or equipment to avoid the associated costs?

a)     Preventive maintenance

b)     Predictive maintenance

c)     Reactive maintenance

d)     Total productive maintenance

 

Question 13:- Purpose of Maintenance           .

a)     to maximize performance of production equipment efficiently and regularly

b)     Prevent breakdown or failures

c)     Increase reliability of the operating systems

d)     All of the above

 

Question 14:- maintenance implies that repairs are made after the equipment is failed and can not perform its normal function anymore.

a)           Preventive

 

b)     Predictive

c)     Corrective or Breakdown

d)     All of the above

 

Question 15:- In            maintenance, machinery conditions are periodically monitored and this enables the maintenance crews to take timely actions, such as machine adjustment, repair or overhaul.

a)     Preventive

b)     Predictive

c)     Corrective or Breakdown

d)     All of the above

 

Question 16:- Purchasing department located at the firm’s corporate office makes all the purchasing decisions;

a)     Decentralized Purchasing

b)     Centralized Purchasing-

c)     hybrid purchasing

d)     All of the above

 

Question 17:- Buying materials and components from suppliers instead of making them in-house. The trend has moved toward outsourcing.

a)     Outsourcing

b)     Backward integration

c)     Forward integration

d)     none of the above

 

Question 18:- refers to acquiring sources of supply.

a)     Outsourcing

b)     Backward integration

c)     Forward integration

d)     none of the above

 

Question 19:- involves the use of an outside company to perform part or all of a firm’s materials management and product distribution function.

a)     Third party logistics (3PL)

b)     Fourth party logistics (4PL)

c)     Both A & B

d)     none of the above

 

Question 20:- Products are manufactured or procured based on specific customer requests. We also know it as “Built to Order” or “Configured to Order” model.

a)     Pull Supply Chain

b)     Push Supply Chain

c)     Push & Pull Supply Chain

d)     none of the above

 

Case Study

The Greenmore Lawn Products Company produces lawn fertilizer. One raw material—ammonium nitrate—is

purchased in large quantities in the making of fertilizer. 2,500,000 tons of ammonium nitrate are forecast to be

required next year to support production. If ammonium nitrate costs $122.50 per ton, carrying cost is 35 percent of acquisition cost, and ordering cost is $1,595 per order:

 

Question 21:- In what quantities should Greenmore buy ammonium nitrate?

a)           15,235.25 tons per order

b)          13,638.395 tons per order

c)           13,638.395 tons per order

d)          15,235 tons per order

 

Question 22:- What annual stocking costs will be incurred if ammonium nitrate is ordered at the EOQ? a)              $ 584,746.20

b)          $ 584,746.90

c)           $ 594,746.20

d)          $ 684,746.20

 

Question 23:- How many orders per year must Greenmore place for ammonium nitrate?

a)           193.3 orders per year

b)          183.3 orders per year

c)           188.3 orders per year

d)          283.3 orders per year

 

Question 24:- How much time will elapse between orders

a)           about 4 days

b)          about 3 days

c)           about 5 days

d)          about 2 days

 

Question 25:- What is the basic assumption in the case?

a)           Demand is constant

b)          No quantity discount available

c)           Both A & B

d)          none of the above

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