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Subject Code:
GM14
Subject Name:
STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT & ETHICS
Component name:
TERM END Assignment Start Date:
10/07/2022
Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022
Question
1:- Strategy is developed by the visionary chief executive in_____mode of
strategic management.
a) planning mode
b) adaptive mode
c) strategic mode
d) entrepreneurial mode
Question
2:- Stability strategy is a ____strategy.
a) corporate level
b) business level
c) functional level
d) strategic level
Question
3:- What are the means by which long term objectives will be achieved.
a) strategies
b) policies
c) strength
d) opportunities
Question
4:- Marketing strategy is a ____type of strategy.
a) business level
b) growth level
c) corporate level
d) functional level
Question
5:- When an industry relies heavily on government contracts, which forecasts
can be the most important part of an external audit.
a) economic
b) competitive
c) political
d) multinational
Question
6:- A possible and desirable future state of an organisation is called:
a) mission
b) vision
c) strategy implementation
d) strategy formulation
Question
7:- Selling of a company`s assets in parts for their tangible worth is called:
a) divestiture
b) concentric diversification
c) liquidation
d) unrelated integration
Question
8:- What are the guides to decision making?
a) rules
b) procedures
c) goals
d) policies
Question
9:- In strategic thinking, how long is the long-term, approximately?
a) 1 month to 1 year
b) 2 to 3 years
c) 3 to 5 years
d) more than 5 years
Question
10:- Buying another company by one company means:
a) joint venture
b) acquisition
c) amalgamation
d) merger
Question
11:- Low cost, differentiation and focus are examples of:
a) corporate strategies
b) operational strategies
c) business strategies
d) functional strategies
Question
12:- Which environment can create new market and new business opportunities?
a) political
b) economic
c) socio-cultural
d) technological
Question
13:- The word tactics is most likely to be associated with:
a) business strategy
b) corporate strategy
c) operational strategy
d) All of the above
Question
14:- How many cells in SWOT matrix?
a) 9
b) 6
c) 3
d) 2
Question
15:- The reasons of diversification is :
a) to reduce competition
b) to increase organisational capabilities
c) to get tax advantage
d) to get quick entry into business
Question
16:- In the ___developed by Michael Porter , competition is not defined
narrowly as a firm`s closest competitors but rather more broadly to include
other factors in an industry like buyers , suppliers , potential new entry of
other firms , and the threat of substitutes.
a) PESTEL Framework
b) VRIO Frame work
c) five forces model
d) value chain analysis
Question
17:- Which of the following is a primary feature of five forces model?
a) it is concerned exclusively about the
intensity of rivalry among direct competitors.
b) it takes into account a firm`s internal
resources, capabilities, and core competencies.
c) it helps managers determine the changing
speed of an industry or the rate of innovation
d) it views competition within an industry
broadly to include forces such as buyers , suppliers, and the threat of
substitutes.
Question
18:- What are the six elements of PESTLE?
a) peace, elements, search , tape, legal
b) power , environment, science, teaching,
legal and education
c) paper, element, savings, trust, labels, and
entry
d) political, economic, social , technological,
legal and environmental
Question
19:- what kind of justice exists if employees are being open, honest, and
truthful in their communication at work?
a) procedural
b) distributive
c) ethical
d) interactional
Question
20:- Stakeholders are considered more important to an organisation when:
a) they can make use of their power on an
organisation
b) they do not emphasise the urgency of their
issues
c) their issues are not legitimate
d) they can express themselves
articulately
Case
Study
This
case examines the Wal-Mart`s persistently superior profitability, which
reflects a competitive advantage that is based upon a number of strategies.
Wal-Mart`s competitive advantage was based on a business model of targeting
small towns as well as the urban and suburban locations. Wal-Mart grew quickly
by pricing its products lower than those of local retailers, often putting them
out of business. The company was also an innovator in information systems,
logistics, and human resource practices. These strategies resulted in higher
productivity and lower costs as compared to rivals, which enabled the company
to earn a high profit while charging low prices. Wal-Mart led the way among
U.S. retailers in developing and implementing sophisticated product tracking
system using bar-code technology and checkout scanners. This information
technology enabled Wal-Mart to track what was selling and adjust its inventory
accordingly so that the products found in each store matched local demand,
thereby avoiding overstocking. With regard to human resources, Sam Walton
believed that employees should be respected and rewarded for helping to improve
the profitability of the company. By the time the 1990s came along, Wal-Mart
was already the largest seller of general merchandise in the U.S. But the
rivals Target and Costco have continued to improve their performance, and
Costco in particular is now snapping at Wal-Mart`s heals.
Question
21:- Unique model developed by Wal-Mart was_________.
a) keep costs low
b) developed bar code system
c) targeted small towns
d) All of the above
Question
22:- This business model was developed by__________.
a) Sam Walton
b) Michael porter
c) stakeholders
d) employees
Question
23:- This model of Wal-Mart provides an example of:
a)
Profitability
b) effective strategy, leadership , vision
c) market capability
d) none of the above
Question
24:- Why did Sam Walton respected the employees?
a) effective leadership quality
b) market capability of employees
c) helped to improve profitability
d) none of the above
Question
25:- By 1990s who was the largest seller of General Merchandise in U.S.
a) Target
b) Cotsco
c) The Kroger Co.
d) Wal-Mart
Subject Code:
GM13
Subject Name:
ENTREPRENEURIAL MANAGEMENT
Component name:
TERM END Assignment Start Date:
10/07/2022
Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022
Question 1:- Entrepreneurship
can best be described as _________.
a) a process that requires setting up a
business.
b) taking a significant risk in a business
context.
c) having a strong vision.
d) a process involving innovation, new products
or services, and value creation.
Question 2:- A corporate
manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up
a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?
a) Ecopreneur
b) Technopreneur
c) Intrapreneur
d) Social Entrepreneur
Question 3:- Entrepreneurial
development is the key to achieve all-round __________ through.
a) Economic development
b) Increase in profits
c) Shareholders value
d) Business development
Question 4:- Banks are more
likely to provide financing for a new product:
a) once the product is developed
b) in the early stages of product
development.
c) while the entrepreneur is researching the
demand for the product
d) banks are likely to provide financing at any
stage of product development
Question 5:- Which of the
following are described as one of the Big Five personality traits?
a) tolerance of others.
b) need for achievement.
c) propensity to leadership.
d) locus of control.
Question 6:- What are the
primary reasons that start-ups need funding?
a) Cash flow challenges, capital investments,
and lengthy product development cycles
b) Business research, cash flow challenges, and
costs associated with building a brand
c) Bonuses for members of the new venture team,
legal fees, and lengthy product development cycles
d) Attorney fees, capital investments, and
marketing research
Question 7:- Which of the
following in NOT a necessary characteristics of the founders:
a) Connectedness
b) Commitment
c) Ability to execute
d) Ability to invest own money in the start
up
Question 8:- Why should an
entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new venture?
a) To identify possible sources of funds
b) To see if there are possible barriers to
success
c) To estimate the expected sales
d) To explore potential customers
Question 9:- Which one of the
following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and
Development Process?
a) Idea Stage
b) Product Planning Stage
c) Product Development Stage
d) Test Marketing Stage
Question 10:- All of the
following are important elements of the financial data and projections section
of a business plan EXCEPT:
a) SWOT analysis
b) Break-even analysis
c) Projected income statements
d) Cost controls
Question 11:- A new venture`s
business plan is important because ______.
a) It helps to persuade others to commit
funding to the venture.
b) Can help demonstrate the viability of the
venture.
c) Provides a guide for business activities by
defining objectives.
d) All the above.
Question 12:- Which of the
following factors does the macro-environment not include?
a) Political and regulatory factors.
b) Customer needs in a given market.
c) Social and demographic factors.
d) Technological changes.
Question 13:- Which of the
following is false?
a) A business plan is often prepared by an
existing company to ensure that growth is properly managed
b) A business plan is usually not required when
obtaining financing for a start-up
c) If a business plan is completed for a
start-up, it may help the entrepreneur avoid costly mistakes
d) All of the given options
Question 14:- Idea of new
product is tested in potential consumers to determine consumer acceptance at
_______ stage.
a) Concept
b) Product development
c) Test marketing
d) Commercialization
Question 15:- Which of the
following shows the process of creating something new?
a) Business model
b) Modelling
c) Innovation
d) Creative flexibility
Question 16:- Which of the
following statements is false?
a) Market segmentation is a useful process for
small businesses to undertake.
b) Selling is essentially a matching
process.
c) A benefit is the value of a product feature
to a customer.
d) It is a good idea for small businesses to
compete solely on price.
Question 17:- As a business
grows, time management continues to be an issue, but the entrepreneur`s major
concern usually becomes:
a) setting goals
b) finding, retaining, and motivating qualified
employees
c) measuring performance.
d) All of the given options
Question 18:- Which one of the
following is not considered as one of the building blocks of the model
entrepreneur?
a) technical skills.
b) management competencies.
c) business awareness.
d) personal attributes.
Question 19:- A typical
inventor is usually ________.
a) Highly creative & in love with the
invention
b) Does not encourage change
c) Willing to modify the invention in order to
augment commercial benefit
d) None of the given options
Question 20:- A corporate
manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up
a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?
a) Ecopreneur
b) Technopreneur
c) Intrapreneur
d) Social Entrepreneur
Case Study
It was in the early 2000 that Ghosh witnessed small vegetable vendors (all women) in a Kolkata market paying interest of 5 (8 cents) for borrowing 500 (US$7.5) from moneylenders for half a day. Ghosh wondered that why should they pay an interest rate of over 700 per cent a year? One day he decided to enquire from those women. To his surprise, the women told Ghosh a different story. They said “We are not paying any interest; rather, we are just buying a cup of tea for the moneylender. Moreover, we are earning enough to afford this. Will a bank give us money? How else would we get money without documentation and a guarantor? These experiences had a far reaching impact on Ghosh. He realized that there was a fertile market for providing micro loans to the poor. He recalled “I felt that the potential of providing rural finance was huge, and if I tap the market, I can fulfil two things simultaneously - I can sustain myself, as well as provide sustainability to all those in the rural areas who needed much help
Question 21:- Idea of new
product is tested in potential consumers to determine consumer acceptance at
_______ stage.
a) Concept
b) Product development
c) Test marketing
d) Commercialization
Question 22:- Which of the
following shows the process of creating something new?
a) Business model
b) Modelling
c) Innovation
d) Creative flexibility
Question 23:- The business
plan should be prepared by:
a) Entrepreneur
b) Consultant
c) Engineer
d) Small business administration services
Question 24:- Which of the
following statements is true about business start-up requirements:
a) New business owners usually need to register
for patent protection.
b) The financial needs to start a new business
depend on the nature of the venture
c) Purchasing a franchise is usually easy and inexpensive
for start-up business owners.
d) Equipment is the least expensive requirement
for a start-up business.
Question 25:- Which of the
following activities is an example of preparing before attempting to sell an
idea:
a) Explaining solutions to audience needs
b) Overcoming objections from the audience
c) Affirming the audience’s decision to
“buy”
d) Determining the details of your idea
Subject Code:
GM06
Subject Name:
BUSINESS LAW & CORPORATE GOVERNANCE
Component name:
TERM END Assignment Start Date:
10/07/2022
Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022
Question
1:- Which are the methods in which an agency relationship, familiar in law, can
be established?
a) by agreement
b) by ratification
c) by estoppel, necessity
d) All of these
Question
2:- A breach of contract can be of _____breach.
a) Discharged
b) illegal
c) void
d) none of these
Question
3:- How many parties are there to a promissory note?
a) two parties
b) one party
c) four party
d) three parties
Question
4:- In pledge bailor is called _________.
a) pawnor
b) pawnee
c) receiver
d) none of these
Question
5:- A owes B Rs.1000 but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a
written promise to B for Rs.500/- on account of the debt. This is a:
a) valid contract
b) voidable contract
c) void contract
d) unenforceable agreement
Question
6:- An agreement is caused by fraud, misrepresentation, & coercion is
________.
a) voidable
b) partially void
c) valid
d) All of these
Question
7:- Contingent goods belongs to_______goods.
a) Existing
b) future
c) contingent
d) none of these
Question
8:- Is voidable contract?
a) partly valid agreement
b) An illegal agreement
c) All of these
d) none of these
Question
9:- Consumer protection Act is applicable to:
a) immovable goods
b) movable goods
c) specific goods and services
d) all goods and services
Question
10:- The total number of rights given to consumers as per the consumer
protection Act is:
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Question
11:- Fraud exists when it is shown that a false representation had been
made________.
a) knowingly
b) unknowingly
c) unintentionally
d) recklessly
Question
12:- Which of the relationship raise presumption of undue influence?
a) landlord and tenant
b) parents and child
c) doctor and patient
d) husband and wife
Question
13:- When the promisee refuses to accept performance from the promiser who
offers to perform, it is:
a) attempted performance
b) vicarious performance
c) tender
d) frustration of contract
Question
14:- Which amongst the following is not a correct statement with regard to
Corporate Governance in India?
a) Every company must appoint an individual or
firm as auditor
b) The independent directors must attend
atleast three meetings a year
c) One or more women directors are recommended
for certain classes of companies
d) The maximum number of permissible directors
cannot exceed 15 in a public limited company
Question
15:- If a contract contains an undertaking to perform impossibility , the
contract is ________.
a) void ab initio
b) void
c) voidable at the option of the plaintiff
d) illegal
Question
16:- The contract of indemnity is a______.
a) contingent contract
b) wagering contract
c) Quasi-contract
d) void agreement
Question
17:- S and P go into a shop . S says to the shopkeeper C, let P have the goods,
and if he does not pay you, I will. This is a__________.
a) contract of guarantee
b) contract of indemnity
c) wagering contract
d) Quasi-contract
Question
18:- A bailer is a ________.
a) a right of a particular lien over the goods
bailed
b) a right of generation
c) a right of both particular and general
lien
d) no lien at all over the goods bailed
Question
19:- In a sale, if the goods are destroyed, the loss falls on______.
a) The buyer
b) The seller
c) Partly on the buyer and partly on the
seller
d) The seller if the price has not been
paid
Question
20:- The term property as used in the Sale of Goods Act,1930 means_________.
a) possession
b) ownership
c) ownership and possession both
d) the subject matter of contract of sale
Case
Study
Mr.
A developed a shopping mall at Mumbai at the request of Mr. B who is a
municipal corporator. Mr.C makes agreement to pay Rs.2,50,000. Mr. A accept the
proposal of Mr.C .
Question
21:- Can third party Mr. C enter into an agreement in this case?
a) yes
b) No
Question
22:- If it’s a contract, what type of contract will it be?
a) void contract
b) voidable contract
c) unlawful consideration
d) none of these
Question
23:- C is stranger between A and C hence no valid consideration between A and C
because U/S 2 (D) anything is done voluntarily, there is no lawful consideration.
a) is the judgement correct
b) this is an invalid judgement
Question
24:- Can 4th party Mr.D offer land allotment commission to Mr. A once shops are
constructed?
a) yes
b) No
Question
25:- If Mr.D 4th Party fails to pay commission to Mr. A, what should Mr. A do
to get commission?
a) file a legal case
b) cannot file a legal case
Subject Code:
IB06
Subject Name:
INTERNATIONAL BUSINESS
Component name:
TERM END Assignment Start Date:
10/07/2022
Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022
Question
1:- Tax on imports is considered as example of-
a) Trade Barriers
b) Collaterals
c) Terms of trade
d) Foreign Trade
Question
2:- International Labour Organization supports investments and foreign trade in
India.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
Question
3:- TRIPS coverage under the WTO encompasses
a) Patents
b) Copyright
c) Trademarks
d) All of the above
Question
4:- __________is the international treaty that committed signatories to
lowering barriers to the free flow of goods across national borders and led to
the WTO.
a) GAT
b) GATT
c) AOA
d) None of the above
Question
5:- Which of the following is the right sequence of stages of
internationalization?
a) Domestic, International, Multinational,
Global, Transnational
b) Domestic, Transnational, Global,
International, Multinational
c) Domestic, Multinational, International,
Transnational, Global
d) Domestic, International, Transnational,
Multinational, Global
Question
6:- Firms success required HRM policies to be congruent with the firm` s
strategy.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
Question
7:- Which of the following are the advantages of Geocentric Staffing approach?
a) Uses human resources efficiently
b) Helps build strong culture and informal
management of network
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Question
8:- Management philosophy that takes as its central focus the need to improve
the quality of company`s product and services:
a) Mass Customization
b) Materials Management
c) Total Quality Management
d) Flexible manufacturing technology
Question
9:- Which of the following are features of Global capital market which may
attract International Business from Borrower`s perspective?
a) Lower cost of Capital
b) Portfolio Diversification
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Question
10:- Which of the following is a regional grouping?
a) NAFTA
b) SAPTA
c) SAARC
d) All of the above
Question
11:- When did WTO come into effect?
a) 1996
b) 1992
c) 1994
d) 1995
Question
12:- Which of the following are the highlights of latest foreign trade policy?
a) Digital India
b) Status Holders
c) Mandatory documents to be reduced to three
for imports
d) All of the above
Question
13:- _________scheme enables importation of capital goods at zero custom duty
for pre production, production and post production.
a) EPCG scheme
b) FDI scheme
c) TRIPS
d) TRIMS
Question
14:- Which of the following are the advantages of Regional Grouping?
a) Countries take comparative advantage by
supplying goods not available with the host countries
b) Negotiation with a few countries is
easier
c) RTA increases the bargaining power of the
members during WTO
d) All of the above
Question
15:- Regional trading agreements refer to an agreement between countries in a
geographical region to reduce barriers,
to encourage free movement of goods and services and factors of
production, across the borders of its members.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
Question
16:- Foreign Exchange Management Act replaced Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
in the year
a) 1990
b) 2000
c) 2021
d) 2022
Question
17:- ___________is the standardized numerical method of classifying traded
products.
a) Harmonized System
b) Numerical System
c) Coding Trade
d) None f the above
Question
18:- ___________has been set up to promote exports by Government of India under
Ministry of commerce.
a) International Trade committee
b) Export Promotion Council
c) Mediation Centre
d) Supreme Court
Question
19:- Which of the following are the objectives any Global strategy should
target at-a) Flexibility, Efficiency
& Learning
b) Growth
c) Employment
d) None of the above
Question
20:- Why competing across national borders make strategy making more complex?
a) Location based advantage for certain
countries
b) Difference in govt policy and economic
conditions
c) Currency exchange rate risk
d) All of the above
Case
Study
Examining
the impact of Globalization
Reference-
https://moderndiplomacy.eu/2021/07/27/examining-the-impacts-of-globalization-a-case-study-of-afghanistan/
Question
21:- Which of the following are the disadvantages of Globalization?
a) Economic Growth
b) Spread of Knowledge
c) Increased Investment
d) Income Gap between lower income country and
high income countries have increased
Question
22:- Growing economic interdependence of countries worldwide through increasing
volume and variety of cross-border transactions in goods and services, free
international capital flows, and more rapid and widespread diffusion of
technology is referred to as_________.
a) Globalization
b) Expansion
c) Reflection
d) Mediation
Question
23:- Globalization may help in-
a) Political and economic expansion
b) Great connectivity across the globe
c) Rise of information revolution
d) All of the above
Question
24:- Which of the following promotes Globalization?
a) External Trade
b) Internal Trade
c) Trade at Large scale
d) Trade at small scale
Question
25:- Globalization helps in ensuring economic and social benefit to-
a) Labour
b) Consumer
c) Producer
d) All of the above
Subject Code: GM07
Subject Name: RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
Assignment Start Date: 10/07/2022
Assignment End Date: 20/07/2022
Question 1:- Which of the options
would be considered as a Research Problem?
a) Develop a marketing strategy for a product
b) What criteria does consumers use when selecting AC for
their house.
c) Improve competitive position of a brand
d) How to respond to a price cut by competition
Question 2:- A research design is
defined as a :
a) framework for research
b) blue print for research
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Question 3:- A research design
would consist of:
a) Define information needed
b) specify the measurement and scaling procedures
c) specify sampling procedure
d) all the above
Question 4:- Purpose of
exploratory research design is to .
a) develop one or more hypothesis
b) to conclude people`s preferences
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Question 5:- Exploratory design
includes the following option:
a) study of secondary data
b) focus group study
c) depth interview
d) all the above
Question 6:- Sampling methods used
for exploratory study include:
a) random sampling
b) convenience sampling
c) systematic sampling
d) cluster sampling
Question 7:- Longitudinal design
is adopted when we wish to know .
a) changes in behaviour between samples
b) changes in behaviour over time
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Question 8:- Longitudinal design
uses samples that are:
a) same over different points of time
b) different samples over different points of
time
c) different samples from different groups
d) none of the above
Question 9:- In a causal study
the characteristic of the independent and dependent variables must be such:
a) that the occurrence of the independent
variable is before the effect on the dependent variable is seen
b) a change in the values of the independent
variable must show a corresponding change in the dependent variable
c) all other variables that can effect the
dependent variable other than the independent variable in the study must be
nullified
d) all the above
Question 10:- Non sampling errors
consists of:
a) sampling frame error
b) cheating error
c) recording error
d) all the above
Question 11:- Secondary data
research helps us in:
a) define the problem better
b) gives us the design that can be adopted
c) idea of the sample size
d) all the above
Question 12:- Projective
techniques include:
a) association techniques
b) third person techniques
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Question 13:- If data is to be
collected in a sample of 500 people consisting of simple MCQ questions then the
best method would be:
a) telephonic survey
b) personal interview
c) observation method
d) all the above
Question 14:- A personal
interview would be best suited when .
a) questions need thinking before answering
b) questionnaire which are long
c)
when sample size is small
d) all the above
Question 15:- A mall intercept
would be considered as:
a) random sampling
b) convenience sampling
c) quota sampling
d) cluster sampling
Question 16:- A random sample
would require:
a) identifying the entire population uniquely
b) take lottery through random numbers
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Question 17:- In a stratified
sampling the strata`s are created based on:
a) homogeneity between different strata and
heterogeneity within the strata
b) homogeneity within strata and
heterogeneity between strata
c) homogeneity of the variable is not needed
d) all the above
Question 18:- Quota sampling is a
form of:
a) non probability sampling
b) probability sampling
c) random sampling
d) none of the above
Question 19:- A comparative
scaling techniques results in .
a) nominal scale
b) ordinal scale
c) interval scale
d) ratio scale
Question 20:- A non-comparative
scaling techniques results in .
a) nominal scale
b) ordinal scale
c) interval scale
d) ratio scale
Case Study
A researcher wanted to check whether the metro train services between starting stations and destination station was more than 90 minutes as promised by the metro authorities. For this research a sample of 20 trips were taken and a sample mean of the time taken for the trip was noted as 95 minutes with a sample standard deviation of 8 minutes. Consider a 5% level of Type I error is permissible. Based on the above problem answer the following questions:
Question 21:- The null and alternative
hypothesis for the above problem is:
a) Null: μ >90 min; Alt: μ =90 min
b) Null: μ =90 min; Alt: μ > 90 min
c) Null: μ <90 min; Alt: μ ≠ 90 min
d) none of the above
Question 22:- The Test statistic
used in the above situation would be:
a) t- test
b) Z-test
c) F-test
d) none of the above
Question 23:- The degrees of
freedom for the above situation would be:
a) 20
b) 18
c) 19
d) not applicable
Question 24:- The standard error
for the above would be:
a) 1.788
b) 14.311
c) 0.4
d) none of these
Question 25:- This test will be:
a) single tail
b) two tail
c) either single or two tail can
be used
d) none of the above
Subject Code: FM12
Subject Name:
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Component name:
TERM END
Assignment Start
Date: 10/07/2022
Assignment End
Date: 20/07/2022
Question 1:- If the NPV of a project is negative then which of the given statement is correct?
a) IRR of the project is > the cost
of the project
b) IRR of the project is = the cost of
the project
c) IRR of the project is < the cost
of the project
d) None of the above
Question
2:- If the degree of total leverage is 5 and % change in sales is10, then %
change in EPS will be?
a) 20
b) 50
c) 30
d) 40
Question
3:- Which of the following is not a source of long -term finance?
a) Equity shares
b) Debentures
c) Treasury bills
d) None of the above
Question
4:- What are the different motives of holding cash in a business?
a) Precautionary motive
b) Transaction motive
c) Speculative motive
d) All of the above
Question
5:- If the current assets and current liabilities are Rs 2,000 lakh and Rs
1,200 lakh respectively. How much amount can be borrowed on a short-term basis
without reducing current ratio below 1.5?
a) Rs.1,200 lakh
b) Rs.1,000 lakh
c) Rs. 400 lakh
d) Rs.1,400 lakh
Question
6:- Which of the given statement is incorrect?
a) Payback period method does not take
in to account time value of money
b) Pay back period method comes modern
technique of Capital budgeting
c) Payback period is easy to understand.
d) Both A & C
Question
7:- The Inventory turnover ratio A ltd. is 4 times and that of B Ltd. is 5
times then which of the given statement is incorrect?
a) A Ltd. is functioning better than B Ltd.
in terms of converting its stock in to sales
b) B Ltd. is functioning better than A Ltd.
in terms of converting its stock in to sales
c) Both A Ltd. and B Ltd. Are equally good
d) None
Question
8:- Which of the following is a/ are money market instrument(s):
a) Treasury bill
b) Commercial papers
c) Debentures
d) Both A & B
Question
9:- What is the objective of Financial Management?
a) Profit maximisation
b) Maximisation of EPS
c) Wealth Maximisation
d) None of the above
Question
10:- If the IRR of a given project is greater than its cost of capital, then:
a) NPV of the given project will be negative
b) NPV of the given project will be positive
c) NPV of the given project will be equal to
zero
d) Can`t say about the NPV as the information
is incomplete
Question
11:- According to Gordon’s model, the optimal dividend pay-out ratio for a firm
whose cost of capital and return on investment are 15% and 12% respectively is?
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 100%
Question
12:- If the Current assets of a business are less than its current liabilities,
then:
a) Long term funds have been used for
financing long term assets.
b) Short term funds have been used for
financing long term assets.
c) Long term funds have been used for
financing short term assets
d) Long term funds have been used for
financing long term assets.
Question
13:- Which of the following is an example of diversifiable risk?
a) Recession in the economy
b) Change in the tax structure
c) Inadequate supply of raw materials
d) None of the above
Question
14:- Z Ltd. issues 1,00,000 14% debentures after 5 years at Rs.110 each. The
commission payable to underwriters and brokers is 10% and the applicable tax
rate is 45%. Calculate the cost of debt.
a) 12%
b) 11.70%
c)
13.50%
d) 14%
Question
15:- Which of the following statements represents the financing decision of a
company?
a) Designing an optimal capital structure by
using suitable financial instruments
b) Procuring new machineries for the R &
D activities
c) Recruiting the new employees in order to
increase the productivity of the company
d) All of the above
Question
16:- A finance manager needs to take all the given decisions except:
a) Financing
b) Investing
c) Dividend
d) Operating
Question
17:- As per Walter`s model of dividend policy if the rate of return on
investment is greater than the cost of equity, then:
a) D/P ratio will be 100%
b) D/P ratio will be zero
c) D/P ratio will be 50%
d) None of the above
Question
18:- Mr. Aman borrowed Rs.1,25,000 was borrowed at an effective interest rate
of 10 percent per annum. The amount has to be repaid with interest in ten equal
annual instalments. Each instalment is payable at the end of every year. What
will be amount of each instalment?
a) Rs.20,342
b) Rs.10,852
c) Rs.40,342
d) Rs.22,442
Question
19:- The dividend pay-out ratio of a firm is 40%. The firm follows traditional
approach to dividend policy with a multiplier of 6. The P/E ratio of the firm
is:
a) 5.4
b) 6.2
c) 4.4
d) 3.4
Question
20:- The risk-free rate is 10% and the market return is 15%. Stock A has a beta
of 1.2 and is currently selling at Rs.30. If the expected dividend on the stock
is Rs.4, then what will be the growth rate of the company?
a) 3.67%
b) 4.57%
c) 8.77%
d) 2.67%
Case
Study
Mr.
Binit, Finance manager of S Ltd. is evaluating the present credit policy of his
company. Under the present policy the company is offering 3% discount for payment
within 10 days. The analysis of accounts receivable shows an average collection
period of 30 days. Mr. Binit is of the opinion that the discount should be
discounted as it is affecting the profitability of the company in the present
scenario of rising manufacturing cost. It is estimated that if the discount is
discontinued the average collection period would increase to 35 days. Presently
30% of the total customers are availing discount and if the discount is
withdrawn, these customers can also be expected to pay along with the other
customers. The marketing manager informed him that as a result sales might drop
2,10,000 units to 2,00,000 units per year. The selling price per unit is Rs.45.
The average cost per unit is Rs.50 and variable cost to sales ratio is 75%. The
required rate of return on the company`s investment is 20%.
Question
21:- Which of the following statement is true?
a) As change in profit is negative, Mr.
Binit should not go for withdrawing discount
b) As change in profit is negative, Mr.
Binit should go for withdrawing discount
c) As
there is no change in profit change in profit is negative, Mr. Binit should go
for withdrawing discount
d) As change in profit is positive , Mr.
Binit should go for withdrawing discount
Question
22:- Increase in investment receivables is:
a) Rs.1,12,500
b) Rs.1,12,550
c) Rs.1,13,500
d) Rs.1,31,250
Question
23:- The loss of contribution due to increase in sales is.
a) Rs.1,13,500
b) Rs.1,14,500
c) Rs.1,12,500
d) Rs.1,15,500
Question
24:- Savings in receivables investment due to decrease in sales will be.
a) Rs.32,480.50
b) Rs.32,812.50
c) Rs.31,812.50
d) Rs.32,012.50
Question
25:- The cost of financing the increased investment in receivables will be.
a) Rs.29,687.50
b) Rs.9,687.50
c) Rs.19,687.50
d) Rs.11,687.50
Subject Code: GM02
Subject Name:
ECONOMIC & SOCIAL ENVIRONMENT
Component name:
TERM END
Assignment Start
Date: 10/07/2022
Assignment End
Date: 20/07/2022
Question 1:- is the blue print that guides the behaviour of people in community .
a) Culture
b) Society
c) Responsibility
d) None of these
Question
2:- Feeling of insecurity and confusion caused by strangeness of new
environment is called.
a) Cultural shock
b) Cultural Adaptation
c) Cultural Transmission
d) Cultural Trait
Question
3:- Technical devices becoming obsolete and new features in form of google
drive and cloud computing replacing technology , shows which characteristic of
business environment-
a) Dynamic
b) Uncertainty
c) Relativity
d) None of these
Question
4:- All the factors that are within the organization which impact strength and
causes weakness of strategic nature refers to-
a) Internal Environment
b) External Environment
c) Direct Environment
d) Indirect Environment
Question
5:- Which of the following are the forces to scan the environment as per
Michael Porter Environmental scanning method-
a) Potential Entrance
b) Suppliers
c) Rivalry among existing firms
d) All of the above
Question
6:- State True or False Objective of SWOT analysis is to provide framework to
reflect on firm’s ability to overcome barriers and avail of the opportunities
emerging in the environment.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
Question
7:- Foreign Exchange Management Act replaced Foreign Exchange Regulation Act in
the year .
a) 1990
b) 2000
c) 2021
d) 2022
Question
8:- Section 3 of Chapter II of FEMA deals with-
a) Holding of Foreign Exchange
b) Dealing in Foreign Exchange
c) Current Account transactions
d) Export of Goods & Services
Question
9:- As per the amendment introduced in Consumer Protection Act, the ebill
introduces as a mode of consumer
dispute resolution.
a) Court
b) Mediation Cell
c) Arbitration None of the above
Question
10:- Growing economic interdependence of countries worldwide through increasing
volume and variety of cross-border transactions in goods and services, free
international capital flows, and more rapid and
widespread
diffusion of technology is referred to as .
a) Globalization
b) Expansion
c) Reflection
d) Mediation
Question
11:- is a bank regulation that sets the
minimum reserves each bank must hold with the Reserve Bank of India.
a) Statutory Liquidity Ration
b) Open market operations
c) Cash Reserve Ration
d) Non of these
Question
12:- When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more .
a) Affordable
b) Expensive
c) Cheap
d) No changes
Question
13:- RBI issues periodical letters to bank to exercise control over credit.
This tool is referred to as:
a) Rationing of credit
b) Direction Action
c) Moral Suasion
d) None of these
Question
14:- Which of the following are tools of fiscal policy?
a) Taxation
b) Public Borrowing
c) Deficit Financing
d) All of the above
Question
15:- As per the competition Act 2002, any trade practice that tends to block
the flow of capital into production and also bring in conditions of delivery to
effect the flow of supplies leading to unjustified cost is referred to as .
a) Unfair trade practice
b) Restrictive trade practice
c) Abuse of Dominance
d) None of these
Question
16:- State True or False Regional trading agreements refer to an agreement
between countries in a geographical region to reduce barriers, to encourage
free movement of goods and services and factors of
production,
across the borders of its members.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
Question
17:- Which of the following are the advantages of Regional Grouping?
a) Countries take comparative advantage by
supplying goods not available with the host countries
b) Negotiation with a few countries is easier
c) RTA increases the bargaining power of the
members during WTO
d) All of the above
Question
18:- Countries eliminate duties among themselves while maintaining the same
with outsiders comes under type of grouping.
a) Preferential Trade Agreements
b) Free Trade Area
c) Custom Union
d) Common Market
Question
19:- Which of the following factors help you to decide the technology one
should use for production?
a) Comparative Cost of Production
b) Effect on employment
c) Use of Natural Resources
d) All
of the above
Question
20:- Which of the following is not the characteristic of good business?
a) Diversification
b) Statice Nature
c) Large Size
d) Technological Revolution
Case
Study
Corporate
social responsibility is a strategic endeavour
(Author-
M. Muneer is co-founder and chief evangelist of the non-profit Medici Institute
,
https://www.livemint.com/opinion/corporate-social-responsibility-is-a-strategic-endeavour-
11654187352364.html)
Last
year’s amendment requiring audits by independent agencies for spends over ₹10
crore and projects over ₹1 crore was a good move to stop leaks from CSR
allocations. With nearly two-thirds of India still living in poverty by today’s
quality-of-life standards, the importance of CSR can’t be overestimated.
Companies should take CSR more seriously and responsibly.
Why
CSR? Giving back to society is the broad objective. But what if you could build
your brand and business while doing social work? Taking care of local
communities around factory locations, as Tata Steel has done in Jamshedpur for
decades before India’s CSR mandate, can go a very long way. Well chosen cause
marketing can enhance brand value, even if its top- or bottom line benefits are
not immediately apparent. Whether mandated or not, companies need to use CSR
fund wisely, instead of it being a sign-off item for the chief financial or
human resources officer, who may be inclined to allot money to something that
catches the CEO’s fancy. Firms need to check for strategic fit. Every worthy
cause cannot be funded. Just as one’s business strategy must deliver differentiated
offerings, so should CSR initiatives. Here are few guidelines for CSR efforts:
Give
more than just money: Don’t just allocate funds. Involve the business as a true
partner. Attend joint meetings, conduct regular reviews on the progress. Let
the partner know of your business needs: NGOs partners should know that the
companies which award money from their CSR budget are sincere about the causes
they pick , but have business interest too.
Bridge
language gap between the NGOs and the company: As both tend to focus on
different aspects of the same cause, this divergence could become a serious
threat to proper execution.
Last
but not the least, put metrices and governance system in place: Both partners
should know if the mission is getting accomplished and whether progress is on
track. Companies can adopt two types of metrices, one set to measure the impact
of CSR cause being supported and another to track the level of awareness within
the community.
Question
21:- Which responsibility comes under social responsibility?
a) Economic Responsibility
b) Legal Responsibility
c) Ethical Responsibility
d) All of the above
Question
22:- Business responsibility is towards-
a) Shareholders
b) Workers
c) Government
d) All of the above
Question
23:- Which of the following arguments would work in favour of corporate social
responsibility?
a) Business which survives using the
resources of society has a responsibility to the society
b) Social involvement leads to healthy
relationship between society & business
c) Social involvement would have favourable
financial effects (e.g. recycling of waste)
d) All of the above
Question
24:- Which of the following arguments would work against the social
responsibility?
a) There are Govt. & social organizations
to carry out social activities.
b) It would affect the economic health of
business
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Question
25:- model talks about Social
responsibility of business.
a) Caroll`s Model
b) Cournot`s duopoly model
c) P Sweezy Model
d) Chamberlin Model
Subject Code:
HR01
Subject Name:
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
Component name:
TERM END
Assignment Start
Date: 10/07/2022
Assignment End
Date: 20/07/2022
a) line function
b) staff function
c) both of the above
d) none of the above
Question
2:- A job analysis questionnaire should include all but the following
a) job evaluation
b) performance standards
c) job duties
d) working Condition
Question
3:- The basis of Human Resource Planning is
a) the economic trends
b) demand of the employees
c) strategic plans of the firm
d) budgets
Question
4:- The most reliable and valid tests are generally
a) Attitude tests
b) Intelligence tests
c) Personality tests
d) Performance tests
Question
5:- Reasons of layoff include all but
a) seasonal fluctuations in demand
b) piling up of inventory
c) union activities of employees
d) shortage of power and raw materials
Question
6:- Which of the following is a future oriented appraisal technique
a) MBO
b) Rating scale
c) BARS
d) Field review method
Question
7:- Group incentives would work best among
a) accountants
b) lawyers
c) car sales people
d) assembly line workers
Question
8:- Off the job management training methods include all but
a) The case study method
b) Coaching/understudy
c) Management games
d) Seminars and conferences
Question
9:- Which of the following is NOT a likely factor in determining an
organization`s compensation strategy?
a) The organization`s ability to pay
b) Influence of union/s
c) Location of the organization
d) The organization`s job classification system
Question
10:- Employee mentoring programme can be
a) Formal
b) Informal
c) Both A and B
d) Can’t say
Question
11:- Job Instruction Training (JIT) is a
a) five- step instructional process
b) six- step instructional process
c) four-step instructional process
d) three-step instructional process
Question
12:- Managers do not apply for international assignments for all but the
following reason
a) Career concerns and interests
b) Cultural considerations
c) Family issues
d) glamour
Question
13:- In which stage of the career, employees strive hard to retain their
established name and fame
a) establishment stage
b) maintenance stage
c) exploratory stage
d) stage of decline
Question
14:- A job description is
a) a group of related activities and duties
b) the different duties and responsibilities
performed by an employee
c) a statement of the knowledge, skills, and
abilities required to perform work
d) a statement of the tasks, duties and
responsibilities of a job
Question
15:- Role Playing is often used to
a) model behaviour
b) change results
c) learn skills
d) change attitudes
Question
16:- Training
a) is short term in nature
b) focuses on the employees` current job
c) mainly imparted to improve technical skills
d) all of the options
Question
17:- The first factor in deciding the supply of labour is
a) developing staffing plans
b) issuing advertisements
c) analysing labour markets
d) auditing present employees
Question
18:- The negative aspect of promotion from within is
a) lower morale
b) employee turnover
c) career prospects
d) idea stagnation
Question
19:- HR activities are typically carried out by
a) line managers
b) staff managers
c) neither line nor staff managers
d) both line and staff managers
Question
20:- Objective-based rating scales are
a) subjectively determined
b) based on a point-based system
c) measures of performance against objectives
set
d) manager allocated rating scales
Case
Study
Ms
Koshtuva Ghosh is Director PM & IR in a PSU. Assuming he is interviewing
you for management trainee`s position in the IR cell, you may now give response
to the following five questions being asked to you.
Question
21:- Collective bargaining in India
a) statutory
b) non-statutory
c) can’t say
d) Not sure
Question
22:- The concept of Quality Circle originated in
a) Japan
b)
USA
c)
India
d)
China
Question
23:- The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides for
a) registration of Trade Unions in India
b) recognition of Trade Unions in India
c) both of the above
d) none of the options given
Question
24:- Voluntary method of prevention and settlement of Industrial disputes
include all but
a) collective bargaining
b) joint consultations
c) code of discipline
d) labour administration machinery
Question
25:- Industrial Disputes Act, 1942 provides for which one of the following
worker’s participative forum in India?
a) local council
b) work committees
c) JMC
d) worker’s director
Subject Code:
MM01
Subject Name: MARKETING
MANAGEMENT
Assignment Start
Date: 10/07/2022
Assignment End
Date: 20/07/2022
Component name: TERM END
Question
1:- Companies that practice both a reactive and proactive marketing orientation
are implementing a and are likely to be the most successful.
a) Total market orientation
b) External focus
c) Customer focus
d) Competitive, customer focus
Question
2:- In latent demand, consumers may share a strong need that cannot be
satisfied by a?
a) Future Product
b) Expected Product
c) Latent Product
d) Existing Product
Question
3:- Today, marketing must be understood in a new sense that can be
characterized as:
a) “Get there first with the effective
price .”
b) “Management of youth demand.”
c) “Satisfying customer needs.”
d) “Telling and selling.”
Question
4:- Which of the following statements is the most correct statement?
a) “The delivery of Goods& Services
from producers to their ultimate consumers or users includes many different
activities. These different activities are known as marketing.“
b) Marketing is to ensure that the
product is easily & effectively moved from the point of production to the
target market & ensures that the product can be easily accessed by
customers.”
c) Marketing is the activity, set of
institutions & processes for creating, communicating, delivering &
exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners &
society.
d) “Marketing is the last step in the
chain of commerce where a buyer exchanges cash for a seller's good or service,
or the activity of trying to bring this about.”
Question
5:- Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use,
or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):
a) Demand
b) Idea
c) Product
d) Service
Question
6:- In marketing, the term product:
a)
refers only to tangible items that can be seen, tasted, or touched.
b) is
a broad concept that refers to anything that can be offered for use and
consumption, in exchange for money or some other form of value.
c) is limited in meaning to goods,
services, and ideas only.
d) never refers to such things as package
design, brand name, or warranty.
Question
7:- An organization with several product lines and all the product lines have
several items with variety. This combination is called
a) Product mix
b) Brand mix
c) Consumer mix
d) Packaging mix
Question
8:- Vineeta Singh of Sugar cosmetics observed: In the factory, we make
cosmetics; in the store ?
a)
we sell quality
b) we sell hope
c) we challenge competitors
d) we implement ads
Question
9:- Original products, product improvements, product modifications, and new
brands that a firm
develops
through its own research and development efforts are called:
a) Products mix
b) Concept products
c) New products.
d) Products lines
Question
10:- At which stage of NPD we start looking at the sales history of similar
products and surveying market opinion?
a) Business analysis
b) Commercialization
c) Concept development and testing
d) Marketing strategy development
Question
11:- Haldiram wants to expand its line of food products. The managers conduct
surveys from customers to determine which food items would appeal to customers.
What is Haldiram trying to do here?
a) Business analysis
b) Idea generation
c) Idea screening
d) Test marketing
Question
12:- Sales force compensation should direct the sales force toward activities
that are consistent with?
a) Overall company strategies
b) Overall company objectives
c) Overall department objectives
d) Overall marketing objectives
Question
13:- Newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to organization-sponsored events
are most closely associated with the marketing mix activity of:
a) Pricing
b) Distribution
c) Product development
d) Promotion
Question
14:- The delivers to us a wide
array of offerings, either directly or indirectly, through business markets, to
serve our wants and needs.
a) aggregate marketing system
b) planning excellence
c) a quality rift
d) a value line
Question
15:- In order to understand different elements and benefits, we refer to three
different product levels. This level consists of the physical good or delivered
service that provides the expected benefit.
a) Core Product Level.
b) Embodied Product Level.
c) Augmented Product Level.
d) Intangible Product Level.
Question
16:- are products that consumers had not
planned to buy but are persuaded at the very last minute to pick up and put in
their trolley or basket.
a) Staple products
b) Impulse products
c) Emergency products
d) Speciality products
Question
17:- reflect a purchaser' s high level of
involvement in the purchase decision. There is a high perceived risk in these
decisions so consumers spend a great deal of time, care, and energy searching,
formulating, and making the final decision.
a) Durable goods
b) Non-durable goods
c) Convenience products
d) Services
Question
18:- Which of the following are bought very infrequently, are very expensive
and represent a very high risk?
a) Speciality products
b) Shopping product
c) Generic products
d) Branded products
Question
19:- This branding policy requires that all the products use the organization
”s name, either entirely or in part, e.g. Microsoft, Heinz, and Kellogg
"s.
a) Fam ily branding
b) Individual branding
c) Corporate brands
d) Manufacturer brand
Question
20:- A key benefit of the STP process is:
a) more
effective and efficient matching of company resources to targeted market
segments promising the greatest ROMI.
b) identifying targeted market segments
and choosing customers.
c) examining
and identifying growth opportunities in the market through the identification
of new customers, growth segments, or new product uses.
d) All of the above.
Zomato is an Indian group founded in Delhi NCR in 2008 by Deepender Goyal and Pankaj Chadha. Zomato originally began as a ' " Foodie Bay" but was renamed ”' Zomato; in November 2010. Two IIT graduates, Deepender Goyal and Pankaj Chadha were formed to found Zomato.
Restaurant Listings / Advertising: Zomato was merely a listing website and a restaurant directory in its first avatar. This brought in revenues from ads from restaurants that entered the network. Extending this further after the introduction of food delivery and restaurant reservations, Zomato now charges restaurant commissions to be prominently put on the list. Restaurants can pay for promoting their events or deals as well as their overall banner which brings increased visibility and conversions from users of Zomato.
Food
Delivery: For example, Zomato charges a commission to the restaurants on the
basis of orders through its food delivery company. Although users pay a
delivery fee, Zomato receives a commission for each delivery to restaurants
which are then divided between the delivery partner and the client. Restaurant
commissions differ depending on whether Zomato is shipping, or whether the
restaurant is using its own riders. This is said to add to the overall profits
of the company in a limited way due to the massive rivalry and the need for
profound discounts etc.
Subscription programs: With Zomato Gold for customers and guests, and restaurant subscription options, Zomato has opened up a steady revenue stream. While users are paying a subscription fee to access the Zomato Gold loyalty program which brings exclusive deals, restaurants are also paying a monthly fee to be part of Zomato" s bouquet. Restaurants also pay Zomato a monthly fee for miscellaneous services such as live monitoring, tamper- proof packaging branded with Zomato, and more.
Challenges
faced by Zomato
There is already a very strong competition on the market, which has defined customer criteria to succeed. Zomato brands stake its name if anything goes wrong that ends customers are affected by. The biggest challenge is to keep up high margins because of costs associated with food production, processing, and supply.
Question
21:- are those who address the same
target market but provide a different offering to satisfy the market need, for
example Haldirams, Dine-out, MTR foods in case of Zomato.
a) Direct competitions
b)
Direct suppliers
c) Indirect distributors
d) Indirect competitions
Question
22:- Zomato moved from just listing of restaurants to food delivery . This is
an example of:
a) intensive growth
b) economies of scale
c) diversification
d) integrative growth
Question
23:- The quadrant of the Boston Consulting Group (BCG) matrix that represents
both a high market share and a high rate of market growth as in case of Zomato
will be:
a) cash cows
b) question marks
c) stars
d) dogs
Question
24:- Zomato' s focus for the food delivery business has been on
a) Cost
b) Quality
c) Speedy
d) Dependabilty
Question
25:- Zomato follows based on
the principle that we should provide customers with exactly what they want,
based on the benefits they derive from using a particular proposition.
a) Lifestyle analysis
b) Benefits sought approach
c) Media usage
d) Perceptual mapping
Subject Code: OM01
Subject Name:
OPERATIONSMANAGEMENT
Component name:
TERM END
Assignment
StartDate: 10/07/2022
Assignment End
Date: 20/07/2022
Question 1:- What type of process would a paper mill be most likely to use?
a) Continuous flow
b) Project
c) Job shop
d) Flow shop
Question
2:- Measurements taken at various points in the transformation process for
control purposes are called:
a) plans
b) directions
c) controls
d) feedback
Question
3:- Product design and process selection are examples of decisions.
a) financial
b) tactical
c) system design
d) system operation
Question
4:- What would be the productivity if a machine produced 50 units in 3 hours?
a) 0.066 units per hr
b) 16.66 units per hr
c) 6.766 units per hr
d) 60.66 units per hr
Question
5:- Which one of the following refers to the volume of output at which total
cost equals total revenue?
a) Optimal operating rate
b) Feasible volume
c) Utilization
d) Break even point
Question
6:- The process selection should take into account all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Capacity planning
b) Design of work systems
c) Production forecasts
d) Selection of technology
Question
7:- Which of the following is an advantage of standardization?
a) Frozen designs
b) Customized parts
c) Interchangeable parts
d) Reduced variety
Question
8:- Assembly lines relate most closely to a:
a) Functional layout
b) Product layout
c) Process layout
d) Departmental layout
Question
9:- Which one of the following is an example of regional factors that affect
location decisions?
a) Transportation
b) Quality of life
c) Development support
d) Location of new markets
Question
10:- ABC Corporation has planned to purchase a new machine. Total annual fixed
cost is Rs. 10,000, variable cost is Rs. 5 per unit and revenue is Rs. 7 per
unit. What would be the break even point?
a) 833
units
b) 2000 units
c) 5000 units
d) 1012 units
Question
11:- Assuming no safety stock, what is the re-order point (R) given an average
daily demand of 50 units, a lead time of 10 days and 625 units on hand?
a) 550
b) 500
c) 715
d) 450
Question
12:- Which one the following is focused to reduce the incidence of failures in
the plant or equipment to avoid the associated costs?
a) Preventive maintenance
b) Predictive maintenance
c) Reactive maintenance
d) Total productive maintenance
Question
13:- Purpose of Maintenance .
a) to maximize performance of production
equipment efficiently and regularly
b) Prevent breakdown or failures
c) Increase reliability of the operating
systems
d) All of the above
Question
14:- maintenance implies that repairs are
made after the equipment is failed and can not perform its normal function
anymore.
a) Preventive
b) Predictive
c) Corrective or Breakdown
d) All of the above
Question
15:- In maintenance, machinery
conditions are periodically monitored and this enables the maintenance crews to
take timely actions, such as machine adjustment, repair or overhaul.
a) Preventive
b) Predictive
c) Corrective or Breakdown
d) All of the above
Question
16:- Purchasing department located at the firm’s corporate office makes all the
purchasing decisions;
a) Decentralized Purchasing
b) Centralized Purchasing-
c) hybrid purchasing
d) All of the above
Question
17:- Buying materials and components from suppliers instead of making them
in-house. The trend has moved toward outsourcing.
a) Outsourcing
b) Backward integration
c) Forward integration
d) none of the above
Question
18:- refers to acquiring sources of
supply.
a) Outsourcing
b) Backward integration
c) Forward integration
d) none of the above
Question
19:- involves the use of an outside
company to perform part or all of a firm’s materials management and product
distribution function.
a) Third party logistics (3PL)
b) Fourth party logistics (4PL)
c) Both A & B
d) none of the above
Question
20:- Products are manufactured or procured based on specific customer requests.
We also know it as “Built to Order” or “Configured to Order” model.
a) Pull Supply Chain
b) Push Supply Chain
c) Push & Pull Supply Chain
d) none of the above
Case
Study
The
Greenmore Lawn Products Company produces lawn fertilizer. One raw
material—ammonium nitrate—is
purchased
in large quantities in the making of fertilizer. 2,500,000 tons of ammonium
nitrate are forecast to be
required
next year to support production. If ammonium nitrate costs $122.50 per ton,
carrying cost is 35 percent of acquisition cost, and ordering cost is $1,595
per order:
Question
21:- In what quantities should Greenmore buy ammonium nitrate?
a) 15,235.25 tons per order
b) 13,638.395 tons per order
c) 13,638.395 tons per order
d) 15,235 tons per order
Question
22:- What annual stocking costs will be incurred if ammonium nitrate is ordered
at the EOQ? a) $ 584,746.20
b) $ 584,746.90
c) $ 594,746.20
d) $ 684,746.20
Question
23:- How many orders per year must Greenmore place for ammonium nitrate?
a) 193.3 orders per year
b) 183.3 orders per year
c) 188.3 orders per year
d) 283.3 orders per year
Question
24:- How much time will elapse between orders
a) about 4 days
b) about 3 days
c) about 5 days
d) about 2 days
Question
25:- What is the basic assumption in the case?
a) Demand is constant
b) No quantity discount available
c) Both A & B
d) none of the above
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